MODULE 1

1. Radley purchased a bag of oranges that weighed 2 kilograms. He removed one

juicy orange with a weight of 180grams from the bag. How many grams of
oranges are still in the bag?
a. 1200 grams
b. 1820 grams
c. 2000 grams
d. 1800 grams
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because 1 kilogram is equivalent to 1000 grams
so if Radley purchased 2 kilograms bag of oranged, this is already equivalent to 2000
grams, so if he removed one juicy orange with a weight of 180 grams from the bag, we
will subtract180 grams to 2000 grams. The answer is 1820 grams. So there are 1820
grams of oranges still left in the bag.
2. Radley and Rael go hiking. Radley brings 7/10 liters of water. Rael brings 500
milliliters of water. How many more milliliters of water did Radley bring than
Rael?
a. 200
b. 100
c. 150
d. 220
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because 7/10 liters is equivalent to 700
milliliters, so if Radley brings 700 milliliters of water and Rael brings 500, Radley has
200 more milliliters than Rael.
3. Odemar has 5 liters of water. He divides the water evenly between 4 buckets.
How many milliliters of water does Odemar pour into each bucket?
a. 2000
b. 1000
c. 1250
d. 250
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because 1 liter is equivalent to 1000 milliliters,
so if Odemar will divide 5 liters into 4 buckets (5000/4), each bucket would have 1250
milliliters of water.
4. How many fluid ounces are in 1/2 cup?
a. 6
b. 4
 c. 8
d. 16
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because in 1 cup there are a total of 8 fluid
ounces, so if there is 1/2 cup which is half of 1 cup, then the fluid ounces is also half, so
it is 4.
5. The abbreviation for cup.
a. Cp
b. cc
c. c
d. c2
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because the abbreviation for cup is C.
6. It is the organized acquisition of goods and services on behalf of the buying
entity?
a. Selling
b. Credit
c. Purchasing
d. Keeping
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because Purchasing is the organized acquisition
of goods and services on behalf of the buying entity.
7. All but one is true about organization of the class.
a. Organization in the classroom is very important so we need to consider it.
b. A messy, (physically) unorganized classroom also creates a sense of
instability and irritability.
c. It is not important to keep a tidy classroom, and to appropriately utilize the
space as well.
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all statements are incorrect regarding
organization of the class.
8. What is the metric unit for volume?
a. Liter
b. Gram
c. meter
d. Kelvin
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because the basic metric unit for volume is liter.
9. If a can of soup contains 22.0 oz (ounces), how many grams of soup is that?
 a. 0.0485 g
b. 330 g
d. 20.6 g
e. 523 g
ANSWER: 624 g
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because 22 ounces of soup is equivalent to
623.69 grams or 624 grams.
10. 1 liter is:
a. 1000 milliliters
b. 10 milliliters
c. 100 milliliters
d. 1 milliliter
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because 1 liter is equivalent to 1000 milliliters.
 MODULE 2

1. The statement from the previous question "Inadequate energy intake related to
decreased dietary intake while receiving radiation to head and neck as evidenced
by 15# weight loss during last 2 months due to consumption of 1000 kcal/day less
than estimated needs" is known as
a. nutrition diagnosis statement
b. medical diagnosis statement
c. b and c
d. PES statement
e. a and d
ANSWER: E
RATIO: Option E is the correct answer because PES or also known as Nutrition
Diagnosis Statement is a structured sentence that describes the specific nutrition
problem that the dietitian is responsible for treating and working toward resolving, the
cause or causes of the problem and the evidence that this problem exists.
2. The nutrition care process begins
a. when patient/client/group has been identified at nutritional risk
b. when a patient/client/group needs further assistance to achieve or maintain
nutrition and health goals
c. when nutrition goals are met
d. A and B
e. A and C
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because nutrition care process may begin a
Nutrition Intervention when a client reveals another piece of new assessment
data/information that will cause the RDN to re assess, and re-diagnose and perhaps
modify the plan that he/she had started discussing with the client.
3. The nutrition care process ends
a. when patient/client/group has been identified at nutritional risk
b. when a patient/client/group needs further assistance to achieve or maintain
nutrition and health goals
c. when nutrition goals are met
d. A and B
e. A and C
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because nutrition care process ends when goals
are met or achieved.
4. What is the correct order of the steps in the Nutrition Care Process?
a. Assessment, Intervention, Monitoring and Outcomes Evaluation, Diagnosis
b. Diagnosis, Assessment, Intervention, Monitoring and Outcomes Evaluation
 c. Intervention, Assessment, Diagnosis, Monitoring and Outcomes Evaluation
d. Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention, Monitoring and Outcomes Evaluation
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because nutrition care process starts with the
nutrition assessment phase, followed by the diagnosis, intervention, and lastly,
monitoring and outcomes evaluation.
5. You recommend to your client that he lower the amount of sodium in his diet
and discuss which foods are sources of sodium. You and the client then go
through his diet, identify the foods that he is consuming that are high in sodium
and generate a list of alternative foods that he is willing to substitute for the high-
sodium foods. Which step of the nutrition care process are you performing?
a. Assessment
b. Intervention
c. Diagnosis
d. Monitoring and Outcomes Assessment
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because recommendation is already part of the
intervention phase where the RDN selects the nutrition intervention that will be directed
to the root cause (or etiology) of the nutrition problem and aimed at alleviating the signs
and symptoms of the diagnosis.
6. The NCP challenges the dietitian to:
a. learn more terminology
b. utilize critical thinking skills
c. provide standardized care
d. develop the PES statement
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because the Nutrition Care process challenges
dietitian to utilize critical thinking skills especially during the diagnosis and intervention
phase.
7. is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.
a. Percussion
b. Auscultation
c. Palpation
d. Inspection
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because palpation is the examination of the
body using the sense of touch. This is done during assessments.
8. A patient has developed a pressure wound from lying in bed. This information
should be documented in which part of ADIME charting?
a. Assessment
 b. Intervention
c. Diagnosis
d. Monitoring
e. Evaluation
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because the nutrition assessment phase covers
collecting data and documents information such as food or nutrition-related history;
biochemical data, medical tests and procedures; anthropometric measurements,
nutrition-focused physical findings and client history.
9. The "I" in ADIME charting stands for:
a. ideal.
b. identification.
c. impaired.
d. intervention
e. interaction
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the “I” in the ADIME charting stand for
Intervention, the second phase of the NCP.
10. Which describes a function of the patient's medical chart?
a. Communicating information between medical professionals and the public
b. Evaluating medical care for the client's family
c. Upholding the Joint Commission's standards
d. Keeping a record of what has been done for the patient
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the function of the patient’s medical
chart is to keep record of what has been done for the patient since this will be the bases
of the physician whenever he/she visits the patient or when there are sudden changes
in the patient’s condition.
 MODULE 3

1. The definition of nutrition is:

a. The study of the effect of food and how it is processed in the body
b. The science of how nutrients are obtained for people to use
c. The study of how energy flows throughout the body and how it is processed
d. The process of eating and eliminating.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because nutrition is the process of providing or
obtaining the food necessary for health and growth basically on how it is processed in
our body.
2. Nutrients are:
a. Substances that nourish the body and are used to obtain energy for the body
b. Substances the body uses to make chemical reactions occur throughout the
body systems
c. Chemicals that aid in the function of muscles and organs in the body
d. Chemical that helps improve muscle growth.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because nutrients are substances that nourish
the body and are used to obtain energy for the body.
3. Foods in this group should be consumed often by teens due to their large
amount of calcium and should be either low fat or fat-free.
a. Grains
c. Meats
b. Dairy
d. Beans
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because dairy should be consumed often by
teens due to their large amount of calcium which is good for bone development.
4. This food group is composed of five different subgroups, from "dark leafy" and
"dry beans and peas".
a. Grains
b. Vegetables
c. Meats and beans
d. All of the above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because vegetables is a food group that is
composed of five different subgroups, from "dark leafy" and "dry beans and peas" which
are composed of nutrients that are good in the body.
5. Carbohydrates should compose of a person's daily calorie intake.
a. 40-50%
 b. 60-70%
c. 55-65%
d. 65-75%
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because carbohydrates should compose 55-
65% of a person's daily calorie intake.
6. What is a balanced diet?
a. A diet that consists of the right nutrients in the right quantities
b. A diet that consists of eating fruits and vegetables
c. A diet that consists of eating diary food
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because balanced diet is mainly a diet where a
person intakes right amount of nutrients in the right quantities, basically not too much
and too less.
7. Simple sugars are;
a. The major of energy for cells
b. Vital to normal body functioning
c. Essential for cells to gain energy from carbohydrates
d. Substances that build up into proteins
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because our body breaks down carbohydrates
into glucose. Glucose, or blood sugar (simple sugar), is the main source of energy for
our body's cells and tissues.
8. The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she
should include in her diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the
dietary instructions if she selects which of the following from her menu?
a. Nuts and fish.
b. Butter and margarine.
c. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables.
d. Milk and corn
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because oranges are a good source of vitamin
C, which enhances iron absorption, and dark green leafy vegetables are also a good
source of iron.
9. The nurse is instructing a client with hyperkalemia on the importance of
choosing foods low in potassium. The nurse should teach the client to limit which
of the following foods?
a. Grapes.
b. Green beans.
 c. Carrot.
d. Cabbage
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because carrots has 320 mg of potassium per
100 mg serving which is considered as high in potassium, that is why this should be
avoided by patients with hyperkalemia . Foods that are low in potassium include
applesauce, grapes, green beans, blueberries, pineapple, and cabbage.
10. A client is recovering from debridement of the right leg. A nurse encourages
the client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote
wound healing?
a. Milk.
b. Banana.
c. Chicken.
d. Strawberries
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because citrus fruits like strawberries are known
to be good for healing wounds since they have high anti-inflammatory properties.
QUISIDO, CAMILLE MARIE B. JULY 10, 2021
BSN2-A8
MODULE 4

1. Eating too many simple carbohydrates can cause what?

a. Cancer c. Tooth decay
b. Insulin deficiency d. Super
Powers
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because consuming excess carbohydrates can cause tooth
decay because carbohydrates fuels the bacteria to produce acid which leads to demineralization of the
tooth surface.
2. What is not a type of carbohydrate?
a. Fat c. Fiber
b. Starch d. Sugar
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because fat is not a type of carbohydrate. There are only three
main types of carbohydrates, and these are the sugars, starched, and fiber.
3. Which foods do not contain natural sugar?
a. Apple c. milk
b. Strawberry d. none of the
above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because apple, strawberry, and milk contains natural sugar.
4. Which health problems is a consequence of eating too much added sugar?
a. Overweight c. Heart disease
b. Diabetes d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because consuming too much sugar can cause a gain in weight
and may result to the development of certain illnesses like diabetes and heart disease.
5. Which carbohydrate provides the most bulk to the diet?
a. Fructose c. Lactose
b. Fiber d. Sucrose
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because fiber provides the most bulk in diet since it is high in
carbohydrates which could aid a person in gaining weight.
6.What is the function of carbohydrates?
a. Long term energy storage c. Short term energy
b. Information storage d. Building muscles and
cells
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because the primary function of carbohydrates is for short-term
energy storage and the secondary function is for intermediate-term energy storage.

7.It is healthiest to get your daily carbohydrates by eating...

a. Lots of chocolate c. Simple sugars
b. Fiber-rich fruits and whole grains d. Fruit juice with lots of added
sugar
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because consuming fiber-rich fruits and whole grains are much
healthy than consuming foods that contain processed sugar which is not good for our health.
8.Which sugars are present in Sucrose?
a. Fructose and glucose c. Glucose and glucose
b. Glucose and galatose d. Fructose and
galatose
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because sucrose is a disaccharide consisting 50% glucose and
50% fructose.
9. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
a. Sucrose c. Maltose
b. Lactose d.
Galactose
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because disaccharides are simple sugars that are soluble in
water. Examples of disaccharide are sucrose, lactose, and maltose. Galactose is not included.
10.If you're trying to avoid added sugars, which ingredient should you watch for on food
labels?
a. Raw sugar c. Corn syrup
b. Molasses d. All of the
above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all of the choices are considered added sugar, so if a
person is trying to avoid added sugars, he/she should include watching the raw sugar count, molasses,
and corn syrup portion in the food label.
 MODULE 5

1. Which has more protein?

a. 1 cup of whole milk c. 1 cup of vegetarian baked beans
b. 3 ounces of beef d. 1 large
egg
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because the food group that has the largest source of protein
are lean meat and poultry.
2. Why do we need protein?
a. For energy c. To build cells
b. To repair bones and muscles d. All of
the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because protein provides longer-lasting energy source, it
contributes in repairing bones and muscles, and lastly, it helps our body repair cells and make new
ones.
3. A "complete" protein is also known as:
a. A carbohydrate protein c. A high-quality protein
b. A special protein d. A unique protein
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because animal products which have all of the essential amino
acids and are known as complete protein or ideal or high quality protein.
4. You can find protein in which of the following:
a. Sunflower seeds c. Walnuts
b. Chickpeas d. All the
above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all the choices are known to be a good source of
protein.
5. Which could mean you're not getting enough protein?
a. Weight loss c. Muscle fatigue
b. Loss in muscle strength d. All of
the above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because loss of muscle mass and strength can further
accelerate by low levels of protein in the body.
6. Classify the following protein according to its function: hemoglobin, oxygen carrier in
the blood.
a. Transport c. Structural
b. Enzyme d.
 Storage
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because hemoglobin is vital in transferring oxygen in our
blood from the lungs to the tissues.
7.Classify the following protein according to its function: collagen, a major component of
tendons and cartilage.
a. Transport c. Structural
b. Enzyme d.
Storage
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because in most collagens, they act as supporting structures
and anchor cells to each other.
8. Classify the following protein according to its function: keratin, a protein found in hair
a. Transport c. Structural
b. Enzyme d. Storage
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because keratin serves important structural and protective
functions, particularly in the epithelium.
9.Classify the following protein according to its function: amylases that catalyze the
hydrolysis of starch.
a. Transport c. Structural
b. Enzyme d.
Storage
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because amylases is a digestive enzyme which functions to
hydrolyze the glycosidic bonds in starch molecules, converting complex carbohydrates to simple
sugars.
10. What are some signs you aren't getting enough protein?
a. You fall asleep in random places
b. Your hair falls out
c. You’re in high energy
d. You shrink in
height
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because severe protein deficiency may affect our skin, nails and
hair (hair loss).
 MODULE 6

1. Saturated fats tend to be more .

a. Solid c. Liquid
b. Gas d.
Watery c.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because saturated fat is also known as solid fat since it remain
solid at room temperature.
2. Which of the 3 fats is BEST to have in a diet?
a. Saturated c. Polyunsaturated
b. Monounsaturat
ed
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because polyunsaturated fat is much healthier than
monounsaturated and saturated fats. Polyunsaturated fats are known to reduce the risk of heart
disease.
3. Which fat raises HDL's and LDL's?
a. Polyunsaturated c. Saturated
b. Monounsaturated
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because consuming food that contains a lot of saturated fats
increases HDL’s and LDL’s which could raise a body’s risk for heart disease.
4. Another name for fats and oils
a. proteins c. sugar
b. lipids d. nucleic
acids
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because another name for fats and oils is triglycerides or lipids.
5. What nutrient is a source of energy and helps your body to absorb vitamins?
a. Carbohydrates c. minerals
b. fats d. protein
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because fats gives us energy and help our body absorb
vitamins.
 MODULE 7

1. Which statement is NOT true about saturated and unsaturated fats?

a. Unsaturated fats are healthier than saturated fats
b. Saturated fats are solid; unsaturated fats are usually liquid
c. Saturated fats are solid; unsaturated fats are usually liquid
d. Saturated fats are healthier than unsaturated
fats
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the statement is incorrect. Unsaturated fats are more
healthier than saturated fats.
2. Which of the following is true regarding lipids?
a. 2nd energy source c. padding & protection
b. keeps you warm d. all of the
above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all the choices are correct regarding lipids.
3. The number of calories per gram of fat
a. 20 c. 12
b. 4 d. 9
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because a gram of fat has about 9 calories.
4. Unsaturated fats are healthier for you. Which of the following foods contain primary
unsaturated fats?
a. butter c. bacon
b. olive oil d. eggs
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because among all the choices, olive oil has the healthiest fat
known as the monounsaturated fat which is considered a healthy dietary fat.
5. What makes bad fats so bad?
a. They raise “bad” cholesterol and can clog arteries c. They have a lot of calories
b. They can cause memory problems d. None of the
above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because bad (saturated) fats could raise cholesterol level and
can clog arteries which could result in the development of certain health problems.

6. How can you avoid foods with trans fats?

a. Check the label c. Check the ingredient list
b. Both a and c d. None of the
above
 ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because in order for us to avoid consuming foods with trans fat,
we need first to check the label and the ingredients list.

7. Why is olive oil better for you than corn oil?

a. Olive oil has more antioxidants c. Olive oil has more healthy fats
b. Both a and c d. None of the
above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because olive oil contains polyphenols, healthy fats and other
antioxidants that protect the heart in other ways.

8. What's good about albacore tuna, salmon, and sardines?

a. They're high in antioxidants c. They're high in omega-3 fatty acids
b. They're high in flavonoids d. They’re high in
fats
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because fish highest in omega-3s include albacore tuna, herring,
mackerel, rainbow trout, sardines and salmon.

9. Eat a doughnut at breakfast and large fries at lunch and you've had:
a. The maximum daily recommended allowance of badfat
b. Five times the daily recommended allowance of bad fat
c. Three times the daily recommended allowance of bad fat
d. The target daily recommended allowance of
healthy fat
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because one doughnut adds 3.2 grams of unhealthy trans-fatty
acids to your diet, and a large order of french fries adds 6.8 grams so it is equivalent to five times the
daily recommended allowance of bad fat which is unhealthy.
10. How much oil should you have in a day?
a. One to two teaspoons c. It depends
b. Less than one teaspoon d. Zero oil
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because how much food we eat in a day depends on how active
we are in terms of our lifestyle, age, and gender.
QUISIDO, CAMILLE MARIE B. JULY 12, 2021
BSN2-A8
MODULE 8

1. Which is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because Vitamin C is classified as water
soluble. Only Vitamins A, E and D are fat soluble.
2. What food contain calcium?
a. Oranges
b. Chicken
c. Yogurt
d. Iceberg lettuce
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because yogurt are known to be rich in
calcium A little yogurt can provide a lot of calcium. An 8-ounce serving of plain
low-fat yogurt contains 415 milligrams.
3. Vitamin D can be obtained from .
a. Carrots
b. Cereal
c. Wholegrain food
d. Sunlight
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because sunlight exposure is the most
natural source of vitamin D. This promotes to maintain healthy blood levels by
staying under the sun for at least 10-30 minutes from7 am to 9 am. Exposure to
sunlight after 10 am is already harmful for the body.
4. Anemia is caused by a lack of what mineral?
a. Folate
b. Calcium
c. Iron
d. Sodium
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because when our body lacks enough
Iron needed for the formation of hemoglobin, this can lead to Anemia. iron
deficiency anemia is the most common nutritional disorder.
5. is needed to form and maintain healthy skin and for growth and
development of our body.
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin E
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because Vitamin A is needed to form and
maintain healthy skin for growth and development of our body, it also helps vision
and tissue repair. This vitamin can be found in rich quantities of yellow and
orange vegetables, dairy products, and liver.
6. When our body is low in or missing an essential nutrient this is called a
a. deficiency
b. without
c. devise
d. deficit
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because nutrition deficiency happen
when our body is low in or missing an essential nutrient.
7. This helps your immune system, and the ability to heal
a. Vitamin D
b. calcium
c. protein
d. Vitamin C
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer vitamin D helps our immune system, and
can affect wound healing by increasing the production of epidermal and platelet
growth factors.
8. What is the main reason for eating a wide variety of foods?
a. to learn the food label
b. to keep from getting bored with your diet
c. to provide all the nutrients you need
d. to help improve physical fitness
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because eating wide variety of foods
provides us different kinds of nutrients our body needs which aids in preventing
health complications.
9. Which nutrient helps control body functions such as digestion,
metabolism, and wound healing?
a. Vitamins
 b. Water
c. Minerals
d. Vegetables
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because above all, vitamins play several
roles in our body, it helps control body functions such as digestions, metabolism,
wound healing, and boosting of our immune system. Having less vitamins in the
body could contribute in the development of certain health complication like
anemia, and people would be more vulnerable to certain diseases.
10. Which of the following is an excellent source of vitamin C?
a. orange juice
b. bread
c. milk
d. hamburger
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because citrus fruits are known to be a
good source of vitamin C, this includes orange, strawberries, blackcurrants, and
more.
 MODULE 9

1. A healthy diet in pregnancy is needed to

a. Prevent miscarriage
b. Prevent birth defects
c. Help the baby develop and grow
d. Preserve the baby
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because a healthy pregnancy diet is
essential for the baby's development and growth since this assists in proper brain
development and a healthy birth weight, as well as lowering the chance of
numerous birth abnormalities.
2. Taking extra folic acid in pregnancy can help prevent
a. Rickets
b. Neural tube defects (eg spina bifida)
c. Miscarriage
d. Morning sickness
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because taking extra folic acid when the
baby is developing early during pregnancy help form Neural tube. Folic acid is
essential because it aids in preventing certain birth defects.
3. Vegetarian women may find it hard to get enough of the following in their
diet
a. Iron and vitamin B12
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because essential nutrients that are
harder to obtain in a vegetarian diet includes protein, some minerals like iron,
calcium and zinc, vitamin B12 and vitamin D. That is why vegetarians should
plan their meals to avoid deficiencies of these mentioned vitamins.
4. What is a measure of the energy you get from food?
a. Fiber
b. Trans-Fat
c. Calorie
d. Carbohydrate
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because a calories is a unit that is used
to measure energy that we get from the food that we eat. Energy is measured in
units of kilocalories (kcal) or kilojoules (kJ).
5. Which vitamin is important to eyesight?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin D
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because Vitamin A play an essential role
in our vision, it supports the function of our cornea and allows our eyes to see in
low-light conditions.
 MODULE 10

1. Malnutrition can lead to what consequence(s)?

a. Prolonged wound healing
b. Decreased nutrient needs
c. Increased immunity
d. Increased use of medications
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because malnutrition could prolong
wound healing and increased infection rates. Furthermore, people who are
malnourished may develop pressure ulcers, infections, and delayed wound
healing that result in chronic nonhealing wounds.
2. Getting groceries at the store may be difficult for elderly because:
a. They may not have access to transportation
b. Carrying grocery bags from the car to their house may be too much
c. They may have difficulty visually reading food labels and counting
money
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because elderly people would have
difficulty getting groceries at the store for many reasons such as lack of
transportation, difficulty in the actual shopping process, difficulty carrying
groceries, and trouble visually reading food labels and counting money.
3. Body composition shifts with age, showing what changes?
a. Increase in bone mineral and protein
b. Decrease in fat mass and increase in fat free mass
c. Increase in fat mass and decrease in fat free mass
d. Increase in water composition and fat free mass
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because as people age the fat tends to
increase and redistribute itself around the body while fat-free mass tends to
decrease.
4. Which of the following is a preferred food source of carbohydrate?
a. White pasta
b. Whole wheat bread
c. Eggs
d. Lean meats
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because whole wheat bread are known to
be a fiber containing complex carbohydrates with low fat and calories. All wheat
products contains carbohydrates.
 5. Which of the following is true about vitamins?
a. All vitamin requirements do not change with age
b. Vitamins do not yield energy
c. Vitamin D needs are decreased with age
d. Vitamins are only found in fruits and vegetables
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because vitamins does not yield energy,
instead, these are chemical substances in foods that perform specific functions in our
body.
 MODULE 11

1. Mr. Roque who is recovering from a surgery has been ordered a change
from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full
liquid item to the client?
a. Popsicle.
b. Gelatin.
c. Carbonated beverages.
d. Pudding.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because full liquid food items include
items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk, pudding, and
custard, soups that are strained, refined cooked cereals, and strained vegetable
juices. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are considered clear liquid
diet.
2. Ms. Uson, a postoperative client has been placed on a clear-liquid diet. The
nurse provides the client with which items that are allowed to be consumed
on this diet?
a. Vegetable juices.
b. Sherbet.
c. Custard.
d. Bouillon.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because clear liquid diets are consists of
foods that are relatively transparent to light and liquid at room and body
temperature. Foods allowed on the clear liquid diet includes bouillon, popsicles,
plain gelatin, ice chips, sweetened tea or coffee, carbonated beverages, and
water. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are considered as full
liquid diet.
3. A client with heart failure has been told to maintain a low sodium diet. A
nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed includes
which food item in a list provided to the client?
a. a. Pretzels.
b. b. Tomato juice canned.
c. Whole wheat bread.
d. Dried apricot.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the nurse should teach the
client the foods that are allowed to be consumed to maintain a low sodium diet,
this includes fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.
4. Which diet is commonly prescribed after intestinal surgery, during heart
burn, gastric ulcers?
a. Liquid diet.
b. Gluten free diet.
c. Bland diet.
d. Low fat diet.
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because a bland diet is used to treat
ulcers, heart burn, nausea, vomiting, and gas. This diet is also recommended
after stomach or intestinal surgery.
5. Which of the following food item believed to be complete meal or balanced
diet?
a. Vegetables.
b. Milk.
c. Fruits.
d. Honey.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer since milk is considered a complete food
due to its high concentration of protein, fat, carbs, all known vitamins, and
numerous minerals, all of which are necessary for life and good health.
6. A male client who was admitted with an acute myocardial infarction
receives a cardiac diet with sodium restriction and complains that his
hamburger is flavorless. Which condiment should the nurse offer?
a. Pickle relish.
b. Fresh horseradish.
c. Steak sauce.
d. Tomato ketchup.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because the nurse should be offering the
Fresh Horseradish since it is low in sodium. Options A, C, and D are incorrect
because these foods are known to contain high salt content and shouldn’t be
offered or recommended.
7. Mrs. Del Gado has progressed to a full liquid diet. Which items would the
nurse expect to see on the patient's meal tray?
a. apple juice and bouillon
b. pureed beef and cream of broccoli soup
c. water ice and ginger ale
d. custard and a glass of milk
ANSWER: D
 RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because custard and mild are items
found in a full liquid diet. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are
items found in a soft diet.
8. Mrs. Del Monte is ordered a clear liquid diet for breakfast, to advance to a
house diet as tolerated. Which of the following assessments would indicate
her diet should not be advanced?
a. Mrs. Del Monte consumed 75% of the liquids on her breakfast.
b. Mrs. Del Monte tells you she is hungry
c. Mrs. Del Monte's abdomen is soft, non-distended, with bowel sounds
d. Mrs. Del Monte reports fullness and diarrhea after breakfast.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because Mrs. Del Monte’s diet should not
be advanced as tolerance of diet can be asses by absence of nausea, vomiting,
and diarrhea; absence of feelings of fullness; absence of abdominal pain and
distension.
9. A client with hypertension has been told to maintain a diet low in sodium. A
nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed includes
which food item in a list provided to the client?
a. Tomato Soup
b. Instant Oatmeal
c. Boiled Shrimp
d. Summer Squash
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because foods that are low in sodium
includes fruits and vegetables, summer squash is an example of this.
10. A client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear
liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet
change because he has been "bored" with the clear liquid diet. The nurse
would offer which full liquid item to the client?
a. Tea
b. Custard
c. Gelatin
d. Popsicle
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because full liquid diet includes ice
cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk, pudding and custard, soups, that are
strained, refined cooked cereals and strained vegetable juices. Clear liquid diet
on the other hand is consist of those foods that are transparent.
QUISIDO, CAMILLE MARIE B. JULY 19, 2021
BSN2-A8
MODULE 12

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. People with diabetes can eat as many fruits as they want.
b. People with diabetes should control servings of starchy vegetables,
such as potatoes, yams, peas, and corn.
c. People with diabetes must pay attention to the amount they're eating.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because although fruits are considered
healthy, some fruits still contains high amount of sugar that is why people with
diabetes should also limit the fruits they eat.
2. "A patient with type 1 diabetes has received diet instruction as part of the
treatment plan. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction
when the patient says,
a. "I may have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan."
b. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH
insulin."
c. "I will eat meals as scheduled, even if I am not hungry, to prevent
hypoglycemia."
d. "I may eat whatever I want, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the
calories.”
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because most people with type 1
diabetes must carefully manage their diets. Patients on enhanced insulin
treatment have more dietary freedom, but they should still limit their intake of fat,
protein, and alcohol. The rest of the options are accurate which could show that
the patient has comprehend the instructions.
3. "The nurse is discussing the importance of exercising to a client diagnosed
with Type 2 diabetes whose diabetes is well controlled with diet and
exercise. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching about
diabetes?
a. Eat a simple carbohydrate snack before exercising.
b. Carry peanut butter crackers when exercising.
c. Encourage the client to walk 20 minutes three (3) times a week.
d. Perform warm up and cool down exercises
ANSWER: D
 RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because in order to avoid muscular
tension and injury, all clients who exercise should practice warm-up and cool-
down activities.
4. Which are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
a. Irritability
b. Abdominal pain
c. drowsiness
d. nausea and vomiting
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because common symptoms of
hypoglycemia include tiredness, dizziness, shakiness, hunger, and irritability or
confusion upon waking.
5. Which statement by the patient with type 2 diabetes is accurate?
a. "I am supposed to have a meal or snack if I drink alcohol"
b. "I am not allowed to eat any sweets because of my diabetes."
c. “I do not need to watch what I eat because my diabetes is not the bad
kind."
d. “The amount of fat in my diet is not important; it is just the
carbohydrates that raise my blood sugar.""

ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because alcohol should be consumed
with food to reduce the risk of hypoglycemia.
6. A postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. The nurse
provides the client with which items that are allowed to be consumed on
this diet? Select all that apply:
a. Broth
b. Pudding
c. Coffee
d. Vegetable juice
f. Pureed vegetables
e. Gelatin
ANSWER: A, B, C
RATIO: Options A, B, and C are the correct answers because a clear liquid diet
consists of foods that are clear and liquid at room and body temperature and are
reasonably transparent to light. Water, bouillon, clear broth, carbonated drinks,
gelatin, hard candies, lemonade, ice pops, and ordinary or decaffeinated coffee
or tea are examples of these foods.
7. The risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus include:
a. family history
b. high intake of dietary fat
 c. being overweight
d. All of the options listed are correct
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the risk for type 2 diabetes
includes family history, high intake of dietary fat, and being overweight.
8. According to trials on diabetes prevention, high-risk individuals can
reduce their risk to develop diabetes by doing the following:
a. Eating a very low carbohydrate diet
b. Consuming a diet high in monounsaturated fats
c. Losing 5-7% of body weight through a hypocaloric low fat diet and 30
minutes of daily activity
d. Initiating metformin 850 mg BID and practicing daily vigorous exercise
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because initiating Metformin 850 mg BID,
together with a lifestyle plan that includes modest weight loss along with
increased physical activity, reduced saturated fat intake, and increased dietary
fiber consumption can lower the chance of people developing diabetes.
9. A certain gland or organ doesn't work right in a person who has type 1
diabetes. Which gland or organ is it?
a. Pituitary gland
b. Adrenal glands
c. Pancreas
d. Kidneys
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because the pancreas cannot produce
insulin in type 1 diabetes. The pancreas is targeted by the body's immune
system, which killed the insulin-producing cells.
10. Keeping your diabetes under control early on will help you prevent more
health problems later. People with diabetes are at higher risk for which of
these?
a. Heart disease
b. Nerve damage
c. Cancer
d. a and b
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because diabetic patients are more prone
than non-diabetic patients to develop heart disease and nerve damage.
 MODULE 13

1. Which of the following gives the correct progress of food along the
alimentary canal?
a. Mouth, Esophagus, Pharynx, Stomach, SI, LI, Rectum, Anal Canal and
Sphincter
b. Mouth, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, LI, SI, Rectum, Anal Canal and
Sphincter
c. Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Pharynx, SI, LI, Anal Canal and Sphincter
d. Mouth, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, SI, LI, Rectum, Anal Canal and
Sphincter
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the correct progress of food
along the alimentary canal starts from the mouth, then to the pharynx,
esophagus, stomach, SI, LI, rectum, anal canal, and lastly to the sphincter.
2. It is the main site of digestion and the principal site for nutrient absorption.
a. Large intestine
b. Small intestine
c. Stomach
d. Anus
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because the small intestine is the section
of the gastrointestinal system that lies between the stomach and the large
intestine and is responsible for much of the food digestion. The absorption of
nutrients and minerals from food is the major function of the small intestine.
3. Another term for dumping syndrome is .
a. Rapid gastric emptying
b. Slow gastric emptying
c. Quick emptying
d. Slow intestinal filling
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because dumping syndrome is also
known as rapid gastric emptying, this is a medical disorder in which the stomach
discharges its contents faster than normal into the first portion of the small
intestine.
4. What is best used for detecting small or healing ulcers?
a. Endoscopy
b. Urea Breath Test
c. Barium Radiography
d. Abdominal CT
ANSWER: A
 RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because for the diagnosis of peptic
ulcers, endoscopy is the preferred method.
5. Your patient was admitted 3 days ago for treatment of severe
malnourishment secondary to Celiac Disease. The patient is doing well and
will be discharged tomorrow. When you arrive to the patient's room, the
patient's friends and family are visiting and have brought dinner for the
patient. Which food item below should the patient avoid consuming?
a. Pork barbeque sandwich
b. Braised chicken with carrots
c. Steak and steamed broccoli
d. Vegetables and rice
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because although the pork is okay to be
eaten, the bread is still not allowed because sandwich bread (bun) typically is
made up of wheat which contains gluten.
 MODULE 14

1. You're helping a mother, whose child was recently diagnosed with Celiac
Disease, read food labels. Which items below, if listed as the ingredients,
should the mother avoid feeding her child? Select all that apply.
a. Millet
b. Malt
c. Buckwheat
d. Wheat
e. Corn
f. Rye
ANSWER: B, D, and F
RATIO: Options B, D, and F are the correct answer because wheat is not
recommended to patients with celiac disease, therefore, malt, wheat, and rye
should be avoided.
2. A patient is suspected to be suffering from Celiac Disease. The physician
orders an endoscopy. If the patient has Celiac Disease, what finding will be
discovered with the endoscopy?
a. Over exaggerated intestinal villi
b. Ulcerations in the small intestine, specifically the Jejunum
c. Flat intestinal villi
d. Cobble-stone appearance throughout the small intestine
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because the intestinal villi are normally
shaped like tiny finger-like extensions. The villi help in nutrient absorption by
increasing the surface area available for absorption. The villi, on the other hand,
are damaged and look flat when Celiac Disease strikes. This reduces the surface
area available for absorption, resulting in malnutrition in the patient.
3. Early dumping syndrome
a. symptoms begin 10 to 30 minutes after eating.
b. symptoms begin 2 to 3 hours after eating.
c. symptoms begin right after eating
d. symptoms begin 2 to 3 minutes after eating.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because symptoms of early dumping
syndrome being 10 to 30 minutes after eating.
4. Late dumping syndrome
a. symptoms begin 10 to 30 minutes after eating.
b. symptoms begin 2 to 3 hours after eating.
c. symptoms begin right after eating
d. symptoms begin 2 to 3 minutes after eating.
 ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because symptoms of late dumping
syndrome begin 2 to 3 hours after eating.
5. A patient arrives to the clinic for evaluation of epigastric pain. The patient
describes the pain to be relieved by food intake. In addition, the patient
reports awaking in the middle of the night with a gnawing pain in the
stomach. Based on the patient's description this appears to be what type of
peptic ulcer?
a. Duodenal
b. Esophageal
c. Gastric
d. Refractory
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because the indications and symptoms of
the patient point to a duodenal ulcer. Gastric ulcers seldom produce pain in the
middle of the night, and epigastric discomfort is more severe when food is
consumed.
 MODULE 15

1. Where is excess bile stored?

a. Liver
b. Pancreas
c. Gallbladder
d. Stomach
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because bile is a fluid that is made and
released by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
2. What is hepatitis?
a. inflammation of the liver
b. inflammation of the gallbladder
c. inflammation of the pancreas
d. inflammation of the intestines
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because inflammation of the liver is
referred to as hepatitis. The function of the liver might be harmed when it is
inflamed or damaged. Hepatitis can be caused by excessive alcohol
consumption, pollutants, certain medicines, and certain medical disorders.
3. Sinthia V, a 51-year-old woman, is diagnosed with cholecystitis. Which diet,
when selected by the client, indicates that the nurse’s teaching has been
successful?
a. 4-6 small meals of low-carbohydrate foods daily
b. High-fat, high-carbohydrate meals
c. Low-fat, high-carbohydrate meals
d. High-fat, low protein meals
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because for clients with cholecystitis, fat
intake should be reduced, therefore when client states this then the nurse’s
teaching is successful.
4. Late-stage chronic liver disease is called .
a. Liver failure
b. Liver cancer
c. Cirrhosis
d. Fatty liver disease
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because Cirrhosis is a liver disease that
has progressed to the end stage. Cirrhosis is caused by diseases that harm and
destroy liver cells.
5. What important functions are affected by severe, acute, or chronic liver
disease?
a. Blood clotting
b. Elimination of water, salt, drugs, and toxins from the body
c. Manufacture of blood proteins
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because excessive bleeding, jaundice,
susceptibility to medication effects, and toxic effects on the brain are all
symptoms of liver dysfunction. Furthermore, edema is the buildup of fluid in the
body's tissues caused by interference with the synthesis of blood proteins and
the removal of water and salt.
QUISIDO, CAMILLE MARIE B. JULY 20, 2021
BSN2-A8
MODULE 16

1. When teaching a client about pancreatic function, the nurse understands

that pancreatic lipase performs which function?
a. Transports fatty acids into the brush border
b. Breaks down fat into fatty acids and glycerol
c. Triggers cholecystokinin to contract the gallbladder
d. Breaks down protein into dipeptides and amino acids
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because Lipase is a digestive enzyme
that hydrolyzes fat into fatty acids and glycerol. Other options are wrong since
lipase is not involved in the transport of fatty acids, and trypsin, not lipase, is
responsible for the breakdown of proteins into dipeptides and amino acids.
2. For Rod who has chronic pancreatitis, which nursing intervention would be
most helpful?
a. Allowing liberalized fluid intake
b. Encouraging daily exercise
c. Counseling to stop alcohol consumption
d. Modifying dietary protein
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because chronic alcohol usage is the
leading cause of chronic pancreatitis, which is why Rod needs counseling for him
to stop drinking and to avoid further health complications.
3. What does the pancreas do?
a. Filters toxins from the blood
b. Absorbs nutrients from food
c. Aids in digestion
d. Regulates major body functions
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is correct answer because the pancreas secretes enzymes that
aid in the digestion of meals, as well as hormones like insulin that let the body to
turn food into energy.
4. What causes pancreatitis?
a. Excessive alcohol consumption
b. Genetic disorders
c. Gallstones
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
 RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all of the choices are possible
causes of pancreatitis.
5. What is the main sign of pancreatitis?
a. Constipation
b. Headache
c. Pain in the upper mid-abdomen
d. Fatigue
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because pancreatitis is characterized by
discomfort in the upper mid-abdomen. This pain can be minor to severe, and it
can come on suddenly or gradually. It can also move over the upper abdomen
and into the back.
 MODULE 17

1. What is a myocardial infarction?

a. Heart failure
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Heart attack
d. All of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because when one of the heart's
coronary arteries becomes clogged or has extremely sluggish blood flow, this is
known as a myocardial infection or heart attack.
2. Risks for heart disease include …
a. High blood pressure and high cholesterol
b. Lack of exercise
c. Smoking
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct because all choices are considered risk factors
for heart disease.
3. A client with heart failure has been told to maintain a low sodium diet. A
nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed includes
which food item in a list provided to the client?
a. Pretzels.
b. Tomato juice canned.
c. Whole wheat bread.
d. Dried apricot.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because foods that are low in sodium
includes fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.
4. A patient is diagnosed with Congestive Heart Failure and must follow a
specific diet. Which spices are okay for the patient to use daily?
a. Onion Salt & Garlic Powder
b. Sea Salt & Pepper
c. Ginger & Bay Leaves
d. Garlic Sodium & Nutmeg
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because patients with CHF should avoid
excessive sodium. Therefore, the patient should use ginger and bay leaves daily.
5. A patient was recently admitted for a Deep Vein Thrombosis and was
started on Coumadin. During your education with the patient you would
instruct the patient to avoid what food?
 a. Bananas
b. Spinach
c. Lettuce
d. Processed meats
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because Coumadin prevents clotting of
the blood. Due to the high amount of vitamin k in green leafy vegetable like
spinach, these foods should be limited.
 MODULE 18

1. You have a patient who just had a stroke and has garbled speech. What
type of diet do you expect the patient to be prescribed after a speech
evaluation?
a. Soft diet
b. Mechanically altered diet with thin liquids
c. Full liquid diet
d. Mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquids
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because when a stroke victim's speech
becomes garbled, it indicates a difficulty with the patient's ability to use their
swallowing muscles. Typically, a nectar thick liquid diet with mechanical changes
will be prescribed.
2. Which is better for your heart health?
a. Avocado toast
b. Butter toast
c. Peanut butter toast
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because among all the choices, avocado
toast is the one that is better for our heart health since they contain lots of dietary
fiber, vitamins, minerals and antioxidants.
3. Which is better for your heart health?
a. Chicken
b. Pork
c. Fish
d. Beef
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because among all the choices, fish is the
most recommended for heart health since fishes like salmon, mackerel, herring,
lake trout, sardines, and albacore tuna, can help beat heart disease and heart
attack.
4. Which is better for your heart health?
a. Coffee
b. Tea
c. Cola
d. All of the above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because tea is known to be full of heart-
healthy compounds that help fight inflammation and cell damage.
5. Which is better for your heart health?
a. Dark chocolate
b. Either
c. Milk chocolate
d. Neither
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because most dark chocolates are high in
flavonoids, particularly a subtype called flavanols that is associated with a lower
risk of heart disease.
 MODULE 19

1. Medically speaking, which term refers to the kidney function?

a. Hepatic
b. Dialysis
c. Renal
d. Urinary
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because Renal is the medical term that
refers to kidney function and basically on how well they filter our blood.
2. Common non-specific symptoms of chronic kidney disease include:
a. Increased urination at night
b. Swelling of hands and feet
c. Loss of appetite
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because kidney disease can present with
a wide range of non-specific signs and symptoms.
3. People on dialysis should maintain diets high in .
a. Protein
b. Fats
c. Fiber
d. Carbohydrates.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because dialysis patients should eat a
high-protein diet. When patients eat high-quality protein, body creates less waste
that needs to be removed during dialysis.
4. Patients with kidney diseases must manage fluid intake because fluid...
a. Retention can cause swelling and weight gain
b. Overload can result in heart trouble
c. Affects blood pressure
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because patients with kidney disease
must manage fluid intake since fluid retention causes swelling and weight gain,
result in heart trouble and could affect blood pressure.
5. You are seeing a patient on hemodialysis for a monthly lab review. During
the review, you notice that his albumin level is 2.6 g/dL. He says he eats
one meal per day and would like advice on what meats and meat
alternatives to prepare. Which proteins are among those you would advise
your patient to eat?
 a. Chicken, fish, beef, eggs, soybeans, quinoa
b. Legumes
c. Potatoes, rice, breads, and pasta
d. Sesame seeds, pumpkin seeds, almonds, walnuts
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because chicken, fish, beef, eggs,
soybeans, and quinoa are foods that are rich in protein.
QUISIDO, CAMILLE MARIE B. JULY 26, 2021
BSN2-A8
MODULE 20

1. A patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease asks what type of diet they
should follow. You explain the patient should follow a:
a. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, low phosphate diet
b. High protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet
c. Low protein, high sodium, high potassium, high phosphate diet
d. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because kidney-friendly diet is important
for patients with stage 4 chronic disease, as they are low in protein, sodium,
potassium, and phosphate diet.
2. Your kidneys are what part of which system in your body?
a. Reproductive system
b. Gastrointestinal tract
c. Respiratory system
d. Urinary system
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because the organs of the urinary system
include the kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder and urethra.
3. What is the most common cause of kidney disease?
a. Drug abuse and smoking
b. Uncontrolled diabetes
c. High blood pressure
d. B and C
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because High blood pressure and
uncontrolled diabetes can damage the small blood capillaries of the kidneys,
causing them unable to filter blood. This can eventually cause kidney failure.
4. How do most kidney-damaging diseases affect the kidneys?
a. They damage nephrons, the kidney's filtering mechanisms
b. They damage urethras
c. They damage the bladder
d. They damage all tissue
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because each kidney comprises around a
million microscopic filtering units known as nephrons. A nephron is made up of
small blood arteries and tubes. Nephrons can be damaged by diseases that
 affect the kidneys. As a result, the kidneys have difficulty eliminating waste
materials.
5. If you have decreased kidney function, you should monitor which of these
in your diet?
a. Protein
b. Food dyes
c. Sodium
d. a and c
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because people who have reduced
kidney function may need to manage the protein in their diet, according to the
National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Disease. Sodium, which
is contained in salt, has been linked to an increase in blood pressure. High blood
pressure can be harmful to the kidneys.
 MODULE 21

1. Nurses are in an ideal position to

a. screen patients for risk of malnutrition
b. conduct comprehensive nutrition assessments
c. order therapeutic diets
d. calculate a patient's calorie and protein needs
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because nurses are in ideal position to
screen patients for risk of malnutrition.
2. Which of the following criteria would most likely be on a nutrition screen in
the hospital?
a. prealbumin value
b. serum potassium value
c. weight change
d. cultural food preferences
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because the purpose of nutrition
screening in weight change is to detect actual or potential malnutrition.
3. Patient Sinthia has a question about the cardiac diet the dietitian reviewed
with her yesterday. What is the nurse's best response?
a. "ask your doctor when you go for your follow-up appointment"
b. "What is the question? If I can't answer it, I will get the dieting to come
back to answer it"
c. "Just do your best. The handout she gave you is simply a list of
guidelines, not rigid instructions"
d. "If I see the dieting around, I will tell her you need to see her."
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because if a patient has a question
regarding cardiac diet, the nurse would respond to his/her best knowledge, but if
ever he/she cannot answer, she may call the dietitian to confirm and answer it.
4. Characteristics of successful dieters include all of the following except:
a. Maintaining a daily food journal
b. Adhering to a strict eating plan
c. Counting calories
d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because characteristics of successful
dieters include maintaining a daily food journal, adhering to strict eating plan, and
counting calories. Option D is not included.
5. Motivating clients to participate in health promotion activities requires a
variety of appealing strategies such as:
a. Adapting the program educational materials to the demographic
characteristics of the target audience
b. Considering education level of the participants
c. Finding convenient class times and locations
d. Performing health-risk assessments
e. All of the above
ANSWER: E
RATIO: Option E is the correct answer because all choices are good strategies
in motivating clients to participate in health promotion activities.
 MODULE 22

1. Which of the following is a systematic problem-solving method that

dietitians use critical-thinking skills to make evidence-based decisions
addressing the nutrition-related problems of their patients?
a. nutritional assessment
b. the nutrition care process
c. nutritional screening
d. nutrition monitoring
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because Nutrition Care Process refers to
a systematic problem-solving method that dietitians use critical-thinking skills to
make evidence-based decisions addressing the nutrition-related problems of
their patients.
2. What snack choice would be the best suggestion by the nurse for a patient
on a renal diet?
a. Peanut butter
b. Diet cola
c. Bananas
d. Carrot sticks
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because Carrot sticks are the healthiest
snack item to recommend to a renal diet patient. Renal diets limit potassium,
sodium, protein, and phosphorus consumption, therefore peanut butter, bananas,
and diet cola are bad options.
3. Assists people to learn about themselves, their environment, and the
methods of handling their roles and relationships.
a. Interview
b. Assessment
c. counseling
d. relationship
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because counseling greatly helps
individuals to learn more about themselves, the environment they are in, and the
methods of handling their roles and relationship. Furthermore, counseling helps
people handle difficult situations in life.
4. Analysis of nutrition science, psychology and physiology, and eventual
negotiated treatment plan followed by an evaluation; requires assessment
and diagnosis prior to intervention
a. Nutrition counseling
b. Motivational Interview
 c. Nutrition education
d. Assessment
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because nutrition counseling is a two-way
conversation in which a client and a qualified counselor analyze nutrition
assessment results, establish specific nutrition requirements and objectives,
discuss strategies to accomplish those goals, and agree on potential actions.
5. Directive, client-centered counseling style for eliciting behavior change by
helping clients to explore and resolve ambivalence to change
a. Nutrition counseling
b. Motivational Interview
c. Nutrition education
d. Assessment
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because Motivational interview pertains to
a directive, client-centered counseling style for eliciting behavior change by
helping clients to explore and resolve ambivalence
 MODULE 23

1. The minimum time food workers should wash their hands is:
a. 5 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 40 seconds
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is the correct answer because in order to ensure a clean hands
and a proper hygiene, food workers should wash their hands for at least 20
seconds.
2. Workers should not handle food or eating and drinking utensils when they
have or recently had any of the following symptoms:
a. Vomiting, diarrhea, fever, sore throat with fever, jaundice, infected cuts
b. Runny nose, sneezing, cough, congestion, cold symptoms
c. A and B
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is the correct answer because food workers who have or have
recently had symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, fever, sore throat with fever,
jaundice, or infected wounds shall not handle food or eating or drinking utensils
supplied to the public. This limitation is in place because of the considerable
danger that such personnel face of spreading disease-causing germs and
viruses to others via food or utensils.
3. Examples of cross-contamination are:
a. Raw chicken is processed on cutting board then lettuce is sliced on
same surface
b. Food worker handles raw meat then assembles sandwich without
washing hands
c. Liquids from raw hamburger drip onto vegetables for salad
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all of the choices are considered
examples of cross-contamination.
4. Examples of how to rapidly cool food include:
a. Portioning large quantities of foods into smaller units by slicing and
pouring
b. Using metal rather than plastic containers
c. Ensuring vigorous air circulation around food
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
 RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all of the choices are considered
examples of how to rapidly cool food.
5. Food workers should wash their hands after which of the following:
a. Coughing, sneezing, scratching, wiping nose, cleaning
b. Touching exposed body parts, handling raw animal food, handling
money
c. Before putting on disposable gloves or after using the rest room
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because food workers must wash their
hands after any activity that contaminates their hands, all choices are example of
those activities.
6. If you are a food handler and you have been vomiting and/or had diarrhea
when should you return to work?
a. When you feel better
b. When your doctor advises you can
c. After 1 week
d. The next day
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because as a handler, I should listen to
my doctor to be safe and to avoid complications to happen.
7. How does the marketplace affect food choice?
a. expense
b. types of food
c. convenience
d. a and c
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because marketplace affect food choice
through the expenses and the convenience.
8. Who is responsible for safe food handling in the food premises?
a. Head Chef
b. Anyone handling food
c. Owner
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is the correct answer because all of the choices are
responsible for safe food handling in the food premises.
9. How can you tell if food has enough bacteria to cause food poisoning?
a. It smells bad
b. It smells, tastes and looks bad
 c. It tastes bad
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
ANSWER: E
RATIO: Option E is the correct answer because we cannot really tell if a food
could cause poisoning. Food that contains poison smells, tastes, and looks
normal.
10. What are the basic steps of washing hands?
a. Wash thoroughly and dry well
b. Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with disposable paper towel
c. Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with tea towel
d. Rinse and dry with tea towel
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the correct answer because in washing our hands, we should
do it thoroughly, through applying soap, washing it well, rinsing and drying it with
disposable paper towel.