Ah, but it does. It creates asset inflation. This may be the worst kind of all possible inflation because it makes people believe they are wealthier than they are. When the inflation can no longer be sustained, large numbers will soon find out they are far poorer than they once thought. That's the stuff of revolutions and Dark Times.
Asset inflation takes root through policies that distribute money, not to the poor (Great Society), but to the rich (Deregulation and Quantitative Easing). The rich have no use for the money being given out and so drive up asset prices with it.
From this perspective, it's easier to see how a multi-thousand word essay on new economics fails to mention negative interest rates once.
I agree with your point about asset inflation but I think that the author of the article is well aware of it based on these lines:
> Doubling the amount of gold in a country will have no effect on the price of cheese if you give all the gold to rich people and they just bury it in their yards, or use it to make gold-plated submarines (this is, incidentally, why quantitative easing, the strategy of buying long-term government bonds to put money into circulation, did not work either). What actually matters is spending.
Are you suggesting that negative interest rates are some kind of solution? I think they would make the problem worse, just like QE; the effect would just be to expand the money supply by injecting more money into the economy on the basis of arbitrary rules.
With negative rates, the incentive becomes that everyone should borrow all the time (because borrowing becomes profitable), so then the question will quickly become "who is allowed/qualified to borrow?" and the answer will either be "rich people" or some other kind of unfair arbitrary criteria.
Negative interest rates are a terrible idea. All the extra money will be absorbed by cryptocurrencies, advertising platforms and other speculative investments.
This is the big flaw in how inflation is measured. Assets (eg. for pension savings) and especially housing costs are for some reason not included in the Consumer Pricing Index despite them being a huge expense from person's monthly paycheck.
One can argue the reasons why. Is of the same problem with KPIs in general thay we only measure things which are easy to measure and omit the difficult but often much more important things to measure?
Or is it a conspiracy plot in which the governments realized that the only way to repay those ever increasing government debts is by inflating them away. Ie. borrowing at 1% akin to CPI reported inflation instead of at 8% which is what the actual inflation might be.
Putting on my academic Econ hat for a moment: There’s probably a stronger argument for including housing costs like rent into CPI than asset value like home values. Assets like homes are supposed to be illiquid and relatively constant over time. Ie little change in the underlying fundamentals of the item or changes that can be accounted for in an uncomplicated way. When such stable in underlying value but relatively illiquid assets like homes trade their realized prices are supposed to reflect little more than inflation. So maybe their price changes make more sense on the exogenous side of the equation than the endogenous?
Is this argument still valid? It seems like it would be since it still seems moving in and out of a mortgage is a longer (by months) process than moving in or out of a lease.
Replying to myself to avoid an edit as this is a new topic.
I’m wondering increasingly lately if oil hasn’t replaced gold and fiat as the underlying backer value of currency. We had a problem in Econ to contrast and compare fiat currency to gold backed currency. Fiat is supposed to not be tied to a scarce resource and thus central banks have the ability to influence market growth through currency growth. Gold or resource backed currency can only grow at the rate new stock is removed from the ground. Of course, oil complicates there concept as oil is irreversibly consumed when it’s burned. The value of it still greatly affects market growth potentials though.
The difference with oil is that not everybody exports it. With the gold standard, every sovereign nation worth the name attempted to create a gold-backed sovereign currency, and so was essentially “exporting gold” in some sense (the sense in which you can take their currency outside the country and spend it.)
But not all countries are oil exporters, or oil “holders”; and even those who are, are not exporters to the same order-of-magnitude. This creates very clear market effects where e.g. the value of the Canadian dollar at any time is essentially the value of the US dollar divided by the quantity of US oil exports.
This would be like different gold-backed sovereign nations declaring a different, floating “ratio” of their fiat currency’s value to their level of gold deposits, such that changes in the price of gold would throw exchange rates around (and some nations having no gold at all, and thus having an exchange rate that measures only how much of some other country’s gold their fiat currency could buy you!)
I think (Core) CPI is what it is because many things carry an inflationary signal, but very few things have no other signals mixed in as noise. Core CPI isn’t quite “measuring what is easy to measure”, but rather “measuring what is least distorted by other pressures on the market” (because goods like food and clothing are both easy-enough to produce and in high-enough demand that there is almost always an efficient market for them.)
You can then use the inflation signal from Core CPI to correct other measures for inflation, in order to see what those other measures are doing beyond just inflating. (Maybe they’re doing something like “inflation squared”, but that’s still a separate thing, which you still need a measure of base-term inflation to find out!)
There's no such thing as asset price inflation -- it's a pre-modern Austrian notion. The value of an asset is the discounted value of its future cash flows (the net present value). If an asset is worth more than its future cash flows, then you have an asset price bubble.
The rich think they are rich because they actually are rich, and they expect to be rich in the future. The value of the stock market is high because profits are high, and the owners of stock expect them to remain high. They could be overoptimistic about the future, but its driven by future expectations about the real economy.
Stock buybacks also count as cash flows. But stock that will never pay a dividend (or do a buyback) in a million years? That is as pure a bubble as you will ever find.
Isn’t it reasonable to consider a company’s assets in addition to cash flows? If a company has $1B of assets (and no loans, for simplicity), might indirect ownership/control over those assets via stock be worth something?
That's actually a really good point. But you have to be able to eventually convert the assets into cash (maybe through selling the assets to another company, rather than through dividends).
Speaking from the Austrian perspective, the original definition of inflation is an inflation of the money supply. Price inflation is a separate but associated phenomenon.
The article takes things a bit too far with the political angle. Just because economists may or may not be particularly accurate at predicting recessions doesn’t mean that “economics” doesn’t deserve its place in the neo-liberal order.
1&2) get rid of tax deductions for mortgage interest and healthcare
3) eliminate corporate taxes
4) replace payroll and income taxes with consumption taxes
5) impose carbon taxes
6) Legalize marijuana
Perhaps unsurprisingly, Europe, Canada, and Australia have all been moving in the above direction (at least slowly) over the past 30 years, marking a period of return to growth after decades of economic doldrums where they were uncompetitive with the USA.
There is even less disagreement when it gets into microeconomics. Everyone agrees that markets produce efficient prices so long as you account for externalities. So for example, an EPI study polled economists about the $15 minimum wage (who identified as Democrats 3:1 as compared with Republicans): https://www.johnlocke.org/update/what-do-economists-think-ab.... 75% thought it would negatively affect employment, and 84% agreed it would hurt youth employment.
Indeed, the consensus on government price controls is so deep that, with the exception of isolated things like rent control and the minimum wage, where people don't perceive it as price regulation, even liberals don't really call for price regulation. That is remarkable, because price regulation was a feature of life until the 1970s. Airline tickets, freight trucking, phone bills--all were priced not based on markets, but based on bureaucrats picking numbers.
I think 1 & 2 might be the motivating problem for my whole worldview right now --- just the notion that the system is in fact rigged, but not for who we want to say it's rigged for, but rather for the college-educated middle/upper-middle class. We're all on board for for social justice (I certainly am too), but only to the extent that it doesn't impact the square footage we can get a mortgage on in a choice "public" school district.
This isn't an especially productive comment and I should probably delete it before I hit the reply button.
You'd think that, until you have a conversation with someone who does accounting for the ultra rich and discover that the mortgage interest deduction is a joke compared to the loopholes those people are able to take advantage of.
The key-word here is ultra-rich. See: https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-soi/soi-a-ints-id1801.pdf. Average tax rate goes up with income up to the top 0.1% ($2.4 million+). It starts dropping at the top 0.01% ($11 million+). But at that point you're talking about just 5% of total income. Tax those people an extra 10 points more, and you get maybe another $50 billion. But if you taxed the top 50% an average rate of 21% (the same as the top 10%), you'd raise $500 billion more.
We love to complain about billionaires and hedge fund managers, but 80% of the income in this country accrues to a group of people that has entry-level college graduates at one end and top Google engineers at the other end.
To be a little more specific, the federal tax system relies on people who make very roughly around $200-$500K/year, because those making less have their numbers outweighed by their lack of income, and those making more have their income outweighed by their lack of numbers.
...is that whatever people in that income range are really like, and however little sympathy they deserve, they are the golden goose that provides the lion's share of revenue for the government, so politically, there always has to be a game of chicken when tax increases are discussed. That's where the money is, so how much can be taken without harm to the economy?
I would bet that expropriating billionaires would have surprisingly little effect, but most of the people who would like to do it think six figures is rich too.
You don't need to "expropriate" anyone, and I'd rather not experiment on the folks running the companies (Google, Microsoft, Apple, etc.) that make America the envy of the world.
Folks at the top 30% mark still benefit from income inequality. (That is to say, they earn a larger share of national income than their share of the population.) If you tax the entire top 30% an average of 25% you could increase revenues by double what Warren's proposed wealth tax would bring in. (And you wouldn't risk driving businesses and jobs to Canada.)
But folks (Sundar Pichai, Satya Nadella) running large companies are not usually billionaires. Bill Gates isn't running Microsoft any more, you know. And if he was, what difference does it make to anyone exactly how many billions in stock he has? The difference is the delta between the benefit of his charitable efforts and what anyone else would do with the money, and the parsimonious assumption is that it's about zero. Since, you know, he didn't get rich by solving the problems he's trying to solve now.
The difference is that soon as he gets successful, he reincorporates Microsoft in Vancouver BC. Or people like Musk, who continue to use their personal wealth to bankroll new companies, move to Toronto.
I have no idea who benefits from corporations being incorporated in Delaware, but I (and the vast majority of Americans) don't live there and I don't care. The ___location of incorporation is not the headquarters or where the workers are.
This "Atlas will shrug" thing is trite posturing, not to say that there cannot be other drawbacks to populist revolutions.
From Matt Levine's column describing people threatening that Argentina will become "uninvestable" if it doesn't do what bondholders want:
"[Argentina] defaulted in 2001, imposed 70% haircuts in 2005 and 2010 restructurings, was in default on interest payments on the new restructured bonds from 2014 until 2016 due to legal disputes, finally cleaned up its act and returned to the international bond markets in 2016, and then in 2017 issued a hundred-year bond that international investors lined up to buy. Now those bonds trade at about 40 cents on the dollar, and international bond investors have the gall to be like “well if you default nine times we won’t lend to you a tenth time,” come on. They bought 100-year bonds one year after the last default ended! “There is a limit to what they will endure,” sure, but after two centuries of diligent searching Argentina hasn’t found it. "
It’s not an “Atlas Shrugged” point. What’s the difference between Bangladesh and America? It’s not that we have more people with bachelors degrees in psychology. It’s not that we’re smarter. Or nicer. It’s partly our civil society and lack of corruption, but a big part of it is access to capital. We have Silicon Valley. Bangladesh does not. My family left Bangladesh for the US 30 years ago because America offered more opportunities. What does that mean? It means there was capital available to do things and build things. Interestingly, some of the latest generation of my family aren’t leaving. Amazingly, over the last 20 years major increases in foreign direct investment have resulted in opportunities in Bangladesh. Not for John Galt. But for young programmers looking to join a tech startup: https://www.forbes.com/sites/theyec/2018/08/02/why-banglades....
Taxing away your capital is like selling your furniture for quick cash. You’re not skimming the fat, you’re cutting into muscle and bone.
As to Argentina, it had to offer a 7.9% interest rate to move those bonds in 2017. If we refinanced our national debt at those rates, we’d be paying $1.5 trillion a year on debt service, about what we spend on Medicare/Medicaid and defense out together.
If it was generally understood why America is different from Bangladesh, every country would be like the US.
It sounds like you're implying the secret is being nice to the big capitalists so they keep their capital in your country. But I don't think that's the way the world works, and it's precisely because most people think that's the way it works that most of the world cannot catch up.
Big companies in the US are largely owned by Vanguard and Blackrock and so on. They're already collectively owned by the people, despite all the talk about inequality. Prosperity depends on this system, not billionaires.
It's not that the US couldn't wreck things by acting like Argentina, but that people shouldn't pay attention to the super wealthy posturing. And the more they talk nonsense, the more they encourage radical actions, because true things can't be believed.
That's not the only single factor for them to consider though. I doubt Musk would move to Toronto, or that he would ultimately benefit from moving to Toronto in the long run were these taxes to go in effect. Of the sea of other things to consider, including the pool of candidates, the business culture, the social culture, the infrastructure already in place, types of grants available, the federal funding available (which can come with strings attached, like: "you gotta stay incorporated in the States"), etc. it makes sense for them to stay in America more than any other place. Not to mention, the safety that is here for these people and their children, the great schools, the best medical care, their ties, and so on.
> Everyone agrees that markets produce efficient prices so long as you account for externalities.
Clearly not everyone does. A big part of the heterodox economists even denies the existence of the notion of “efficient price” and rejects the concept of equilibrium.
What you call “everyone” is in fact the huge group of “Neoclassical synthesis” economists, which is super dominant nowadays, but it's not at all everyone.
Progressiveness is a function of both taxes and benefits. A consumption tax scheme can be made more progressive by paying benefits in a more progressive manner.
For example, Exampleville institutes a consumption tax of 15%. Such a tax is regressive because consumption is usually a smaller proportion of a wealthy person's income than a poor person's income. To counteract this, Exampleville pays a monthly cash grant to all citizens and adjusts the payment level so that the cash grant is larger for the poor and smaller (or non-existent) for the wealthy.
But this assumes that the revenue from the consumption tax will 1) be the same as for the income tax, and 2) hit wealthy people enough that the lower benefit payout will balance it.
I don't really see how these can be true given that, as you state, wealthy people spend a smaller portion (a lot smaller) of their income than do poor people.
To toss out some numbers, let's say the wealthy person makes $1M per year at a 35% effective income tax rate and the poor person makes $50K per year at an effective 10% income tax rate. Let's further suppose the wealthy person spends half their after-tax income, and the poor person spends all of it. Total tax revenue in this case would be $355K under the income scheme, but if we switch to a consumption tax, the tax revenue drops to $55,500. There's no amount of benefit allocation you can do to make up the difference. On top of that, the tax burden for the wealthy person (after offsetting for the benefit allocation) is still massively lower than under the income scheme, even if they get $0 in benefits. You'd have to raise the consumption tax ridiculously high (33% !) to get close, which will effectively discourage expenditures and encourage savings, pretty much destroying the US consumption-based economy.
I just can't see a realistic scenario where this setup isn't regressive or generally a bad idea. If you want to keep a progressive system but also eliminate income tax, we need to consider a wealth tax.
Just checked the Danish national budget. Danish VAT brought in (or was estimated to bring in) 212 billion DKK in 2018. In comparison, tax levied on personal income brought in 562 billion.
That's fair. However, the proposal in the parent comment's link (and other proposals like it) is asking for a 17.5% consumption tax, which would be an absurd gift for the wealthy. Even for not-wealthy people like me, it would be a huge boon, while the middle class would get hosed.
Well, you may not think 33% is ridiculously high, but you just wrote that it is in the second sentence. You say that 33% is 1/3 higher than Sweden, which is proverbial as an example of a highly taxed locale.
Where is that money supposed to come from? To make this work people have to pay enough consumption tax so there is money for the payouts. Also, if you make these payments dependent on income level you pretty much have the problem of determining a taxable income which we have now.
Personally I think there is almost no way to make this work without being highly regressive.
I don't think it makes any sense to tax everything and give back the money in the same proportions.
However, if you just tried the experiment, then to the extent it redistributed resources, it would be taking more money from those who consumed more at a given level of income, and giving it to those who consumed less.
So it would probably reduce consumer activity, and I don't know if that would be good for the economy in the long run. I don't think it would be a null-op though. It doesn't seem like a logical or mathematical contradiction.
> A direct, personal consumption tax may take the form of an expenditure tax, that is, an income tax that deducts savings and investments, such as the Hall–Rabushka flat tax. A direct consumption tax may be called an expenditure tax, a cash-flow tax, or a consumed-income tax and can be flat or progressive...
> This form of tax applies to the difference between the income of an individual and the increase/decrease in his savings. Like the other consumption taxes, simple personal consumption taxes tend to be regressive with respect to income. However, because this tax applies on an individual basis, it can be made as progressive as a progressive personal income tax. Just as income tax rates increase with personal income, consumption tax rates increase with personal consumption. Economists from Milton Friedman to Edward Gramlich and Robert H. Frank have supported a progressive consumption tax.
> NPR did a podcast a few years ago on six policies it’s ideologically diverse panel of economists all agreed on:
That panel consisted of five American economists (Luigi Zingales is perhaps an immigrant but working in an American university). Two of them appeared to be om the Democrat's side and three aligning with the Republican party. That is not very ideologically diverse.
You said:
"Everyone agrees that markets produce efficient prices so long as you account for externalities.”
You lost me here, and revealed much about your thinking.
Please explain how a “market” is anything other than steady state if all externalities are accounted for? Profit, by definition, means getting something for nothing. Without externalities, capitalism doesn’t exist.
> Please explain how a “market” is anything other than steady state if all externalities are accounted for?
I took micro-economics in highschool, and when discussing how trade is overall beneficial, they trotted out the old example of two countries, each producing bicycles and bananas.
The purpose of the exercise is to show that if each country focuses on one item and specializes on it, everyone benefits.
I always found that example to be deeply disturbing. If given a choice, who would actually prefer to live the banana country rather than the bicycle country? Even in highschool this silly example demonstrated the absurdity of classical economics.
Profit, I would say, is really the same thing as interest, i.e. return on capital, just with the connotation of being less predictable.
And interest, I would define not as something extra for doing nothing, but as a deferred payment for the labor that created the capital, which serves the important social purpose of rewarding people for deferring the consumption of the fruits of labor.
That's why people have not found a way of eliminating it, even though usury has been criticized for thousands of years.
1. Externalities can be positive. For example, the government builds roads, and doesn't account for the benefit to private industry on their books.
2. You're in a forum with a lot of software engineers; do you really believe that every new piece of software that brings $X in revenue necessarily costs society $X somehow? What mechanism causes this? Saying everything has externalities is far from saying they are always significant, or if significant, they are equal and opposite to the internalized value.
2. is actually a damning criticism of economics. There is nothing in economic theory that makes a calculation of broader costs vs benefits possible.
It simply doesn't exist, so it's not considered.
So economic theory is blatantly biased towards the accumulation of profit for shareholders, and blatantly biased against a realistic assessment of the social costs of those profits.
Simple example: AirBnB. Some people - mostly property owners - make money.
Other groups - people who need to rent property at a reasonable price - lose money.
You won't find the latter represented on the balance sheet. What looks like a potentially profitable operation actually turns out to have a huge social cost. Effectively it's moving money from a relatively unprivileged group to a relatively privileged group.
This is not a hypothetical example - it's a real problem in the area I'm living in, where the supply of long-term rental property has almost disappeared because owners can make more money from short-term tourist rentals.
Economics relies exclusively on these kinds of effects. There is no concept of "social profit" which is a guaranteed positive benefit for as many affected parties as possible.
And without that, economic theory becomes a vicious feedback loop that prioritises the redistribution of money over genuine value creation.
> There is nothing in economic theory that makes a calculation of broader costs vs benefits possible.
There are vast swathes of economic literature and theory dedicated to the study of external and social costs and how to best estimate and adjust for them. Claiming there is no concept of 'social profit' in economics is akin claiming there is no concept of testing in software development...
I'm not an economist, but it seems to me that it necessarily contemplates ideas of profit that don't match accountants' - otherwise there would be nothing to it.
Also, I've noticed how actual economists speak of "economic profit". Whether you use the word "economic" or "social" or anything else, the modifier implies there is some deeper truth than whatever a given accountant writes down.
Right? They literally gave the Nobel Prize last year to someone who began the literature on calculating the social cost of carbon (Nordhaus). And that's just the beginning of a voluminous literature on the question.
You can look at essentially everything that is illegal as a limitation on creating negative externalities, so saying that costs and benefits to society are not considered is as ridiculous to me as saying business is not regulated.
What people seem to disagree about is whether everything that is not illegal is permitted, or whether businesses should be expected to adhere to implicit codes of ethics and proper behavior without specific regulation.
It's not surprising that many people want a strict separation of responsibilities, but obviously governments are having an increasingly hard time keeping up, partly because of technology and partly because of politics.
I don't think that a society where people compete with each other and are restrained by laws is fundamentally new; that's been around for thousands of years. It's just that information technology is increasingly enabling the exploitation of discrepancies between actual laws and the common assumptions about what they do.
According to this survey in 2015 (http://www.igmchicago.org/surveys/15-minimum-wage), economists do not have a clear opinion on a 15 dollar minimum wage. "Uncertain" is the most common answer on whether it would cause unemployment, and "Agree" and "Disagree" both get considerable support.
Supposed by who, though? As you can see from the survey there was nothing like consensus on the question. The link in that article is to the National Restaurant Association, who are a lobbying organization.
Oh great, another non-economist getting famous for criticizing economics from a position of comprehensive ignorance.
Modern economics has more than enough critics WITHIN the economics field. People who wouldn't say something as stupid as "Economists still teach their students that the primary role of government ... is to guarantee price stability!".
Seriously, this has NEVER been remotely close to true. When you say something like that, you effectively lose the section of the audience that knows the something about economics, and are instead rousing the ignorant rabble.
The field of Economics has problems (such as an over-reliance on mathematical models), but instead of any of THAT being discussed we have the argument centering around some fantasy-world view of economics and economists!
You're taking the least charitable interpretation of that sentence, reading it as "all" or "most" economist teaching government's primary role is price stability. That is apparently false (I'll take your word for it).
In a more charitable reading, he's reacting to one or a few instances where it is taught but shouldn't. That could be accurate, if contextually misleading and possibly myopic.
Discounting his argument based on factual errors is fine, but given that you only bring one counterpoint to the table, "another non-economist getting famous for criticizing economics from a position of comprehensive ignorance" sounds like an argument from authority.
I don't see how anything in the text permits that charitable reading. Even the inventor of monetarism itself, Milton Friedman, thought that the government could prevent recessions -- he just thought that the best way to do that was to target the money supply, so you get price stability and no recessions all at once. The whole point of his and Schwartz The Monetary History of the United States is that drops in the money supply are linked to recessions.
Does anyone have a good, non-biased resource explaining why keynesians cannot explain stagflation, and what Milton Friedman did during this era to solve that problem and thereby launch us into the modern neo-liberal moment?
Whenever I search for this, I have a tendency to find articles that already assume the reader has read on the topic numerous times (like this one), or they they only address the topic in the most watered-down and overtly partisan manner.
From reading between the lines on the first few pages of google results, it seems like Keynesian thought in the 1970s hadn't evolved far enough to recognize that inflation could have multiple driving factors and could impact different parts of the economy disproportionately. My limited understanding too is that this was resolved theoretically and with obvious and clear explanation in the years afterward (now referred to as neo-keynesian), but by then Milton Friedman had been lionized as the new economic "truth" and the universe moved on in his direction.
Keynesians (the real ones, not the so-called New Keynesians) understood stagflation as it was happening. There was a deadlock between capital and labor. The oil embargo starting in 1973 lowered America’s real income. The question was who was going to suffer for it. It led to a political crisis, which in the short run was handled by allowing wages and prices to both run up, but it was eventually resolved in favor of capital during the Volcker shock, which deliberately created mass unemployment to undermine worker power. It didn’t have to turn out this way, though. There were other options.
In 1958, A. W. Phillips discovered an empirical relationship between inflation and unemployment, now called the Phillips Curve (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phillips_curve) -- the higher the inflation rate, the lower the unemployment rate.
Milton Friedman argued that the trade-off only existed for unexpected inflation. Once everyone anticipates that inflation, it will have no impact on unemployment. That's what happened in the stagflation era.
The New Keynesians use an expectations-adjusted Phillips curve, which take into account this effect on expectations. In New Keynesianism there is a short-run trade-off, because prices do not instantly adjust, but there is no long-run trade-off once prices actually do adjust.
Very few things in economics are resolved theoretically; they're more often improved empirically.
Take for example stagflation. Previously, economists assumed a simple linear relationship between inflation and unemployment (Philips curve). That failed to hold in the 1970s.
And now, economists assume a simple linear-dynamics relationship between expected inflation and unemployment (augmented Philips curve).
Inflation was fixed when the Federal Reserve (led by Volker) increased interest rates to over 17%, causing the early 80's recession. [1] We've had other problems since then, but not inflation, so it increased confidence that the the Fed knows what it's doing.
But I don't know what Friedman had to do with this or how it affected theory.
This is an unsatisfying view of things, for me, because it seems like low inflation and interest rates are a global phenomenon.
As a pessimist, it seems to me that assuming there are resilient homeostatic mechanisms preventing inflation, then they must be obscure, given that politicians have not been able to screw them up for quite some time. And that means that when they do break for whatever reason, markets may not be aware for an indefinite amount of time. Like, for instance, lately people have been worrying about the US President trying to bully the Fed. It's hard to tell if he's had any effect, if he was right in his opinion, and whether he has found or will find any new lever to influence them.
I don't really think it makes sense to regard the Fed as an entity that still entails the Volcker era, and I'm doubtful that markets really have faith in it that way. I'm inclined to think more along the lines that often markets just go along assuming nothing has changed until there is a shock or crisis that shows they have. Like Wile E. Coyote running off a cliff.
According to current thinking, the homeostatic mechanism is inflation expectations. People currently have "anchored" inflation expectations in that expect any inflation to remain stable in the long run. If inflation expectations become unanchored (like in the 70s), then it requires larger and larger inflation to stimulate the economy.
i don't have anything that fits that criteria specifically but you might be interested in philip mirowski's book on the social history of neoliberal thought:
After years of unsatisfactory personal research of various schools od economics I had to come to conclusion they are all flawed because they completely omit the important parts which govern our economy.
For example having all economical models based around people exchanging goods and not focusing on why money actually disappears from economy in form of monopolies and money parked in real estate. It always has to be poured back into economy in form of money stimuli like QE, yet people are blind to the fact that it yet again gets eaten up by ever bigger monopolies and more expensive real estate. A simple network model of money circulating in economy would show that these sinks are where the money keeps disappearing.
Yet no economic school has its primary focus set on these money eating sinks. The closest school is actually the once mighty, now close to extinct Georgist school, in which they at least explain the business cycle of booms and busts as housing cycle, where housing bust is not some random consequence of a business going bonkers, but housing (actually land speculation) being the major cause of these cycles.
If you think about it 100% of population (except for hobos) are involved in real estate market and paying close to 50% of paycheck on housing in some form. Yet all economics focus on stock and bond markets and exchange of random little items even though these are dwarfed by the housing markets.
I don't think it is a conspiracy, but laziness. People like to research things which are easy to research, but not things which are difficult but important.
There's an entire field of real estate economics. There are professors and conferences and everything.
You won't find your theory about money sinks, because it's a theory unique to you. It may be the greatest breakthrough in the history of economics, but it's not a theory that currently anyone else believes in. I personally am skeptical.
> To this day, economics continues to be taught not as a story of arguments—not, like any other social science, as a welter of often warring theoretical perspectives—but rather as something more like physics, the gradual realization of universal, unimpeachable mathematical truths.
This has always been my main frustration with economics. As a field, it certainly has value and usefulness, just like sociology, anthropology, or any of the 'softer' sciences. However, it eschews the tradition of teaching a variety of views and perspectives for the rigid orthodoxy of classical physics or chemistry, without the clean experimental results to back it up.
Microeconomics and econometrics take a much more concrete and practical view and well-describe localized economic phenomenon, but macroeconomics is a bastardized combination of sociology and capitalist political theory mashed into an unfalsifiable 'science' and taught as such.
As someone who studied economics, I've always found the history of the subject itself to be more illuminating than much of the content of it. Both due to the content having this not-rigorous quality to it and because a lot of macroeconomics seems to be politics in disguise.
> a lot of macroeconomics seems to be politics in disguise.
It used to be called political economy. But macroeconomics went off on a math-trip in the 20th century that rivals string theory in its practical applications.
The opposite is true. Before the mathematics, everyone in macroeconomics was hopelessly confused. The mathematics makes the claims people are making much clearer. People still argue about what Marx meant in Capital. Nobody argues what Kydland and Prescott meant in "Aggregate Fluctations and Time to Build" (an early mathy path on macroeconomics), because it's all right there in the math.
> Both due to the content having this not-rigorous quality to it and because a lot of macroeconomics seems to be politics in disguise.
Yeah, I'm cool with macro conceptually, but we shouldn't pretend it's something it's not. The history is super interesting too, it connects with tons of important events, countries, and changes in the perception of society.
> You're right about micro though.
Interestingly micro is the one place where you can run moderately-well controlled experiments too :D.
The most recent econ Nobel was given to Banerjee, Duflo, and Kremer for experiments in development economics. Most of these assess the cost-benefit of different policies.
Kahneman and Smith also won the 2002 econ Nobel for experiments -- Kahneman for decision-making under uncertainty, and Smith for experimental markets.
Haha, essentially, although I have a great deal of respect for the 'softer' sciences. _Most_ researchers are thoughtful enough to understand the limits of the approach and teach in kind. Economics are a special kind of arrogant though.
If you are criticising economics for the lack of "clean experimental results", the problem is with your expectations.
Everything depends on context. That means that results won't apply 100% of the time.
It doesn't mean that economics is useless, medicines don't work the same way with every patient, but it does mean that you have to humble about what you know and be prepared to change your mind.
I'm not claiming they require "clean experimental results" for the field to have validity. I think sociology is a very valid and valuable field that doesn't have such a thing.
My problem is the misrepresentation of a sociology-like field as experimental physics, or worse, a study of morality. Both are exceptionally common in economics, and I've had several teachers and professors present it that way. It's the orthodoxy surrounding a very specific, Reagan-era capitalist interpretation of the function and behaviour of a society taught as a universal law.
It isn't like sociology...you either haven't studied economics or sociology.
And I would agree generally but I think your reasoning is wrong. Economics of itself dictates no outcome. This is an argument that sociologists often make (i.e. the person uses the tool but the tool also uses the person) but, ironically, this is an example of trying to universalise a principle of sociology to an area where it doesn't really apply. Why? Because if you want to value any end...just build a model that does so.
And btw, arguments generally about the function of a society are politics. You will find this kind of thing taught in politics, not economics. Economists can have a view on them but you have to use politics to demonstrate that any goal of society is better than any other...which is inherently subjective anyway. Ironically, the main people who complain about economics having an orthodoxy about the function of society generally have fairly rigid ideas on this topic already.
> It isn't like sociology...you either haven't studied economics or sociology.
I love this dig specifically because you missed my point. I was simply addressing the fact that I don't think a field needs to have experimentation to have value.
> And btw, arguments generally about the function of a society are politics.
No shit.
> Because if you want to value any end...just build a model that does so.
> Economists can have a view on them but you have to use politics to demonstrate that any goal of society is better than any other.
That's exactly my point. Economists conflate their model of Western Capitalism (for better or worse) with a moral position or _necessary_ condition for society.
I know their are economists that don't do this, but none I've met or been taught by.
I read an abstract of a sociology paper. The authors tested economics students as beginning freshmen and then four years later. The test measured sociopathy. You can guess.
You think physics doesn't have warring theoretical perspectives? I suggest reading about the history of string theory, or MOND versus dark matter.
Progress in economics is slow, but there is progress. Questions do get settled. We don't mull over issues indefinitely. Most disputes about macroeconomics were settled by the financial crisis. We have all new disputes now.
> but macroeconomics is a bastardized combination of sociology and capitalist political theory mashed into an unfalsifiable 'science' and taught as such.
It also serves as highly effective propaganda for its embedded political ideas. It's a lot harder to question the politics if you've been indoctrinated into believing they have the truth of a natural science.
That's the principle reason for teaching economics as an objective truth, "positive" rather than "normative" (a set of distinctions I always have to look up).
If what you're teaching is simply "natural law", then "it is what it is". If it's a moral discipline (which was what Adam Smith rooted his study in), it's ... rather something else.
There are some useful bits to economics. There's a lot of cruft in it as well. A huge part of the value of studying the field isn't the knowledge you gain about the world, but of the delusions of many of those who claim to understand it, or know what should be done for it.
"Propaganda" is always a convenient label to throw around about ideas that you don't agree with. Economics isn't perfect (economists are human), but it is engaged with the empirical evidence. The empirical evidence is that capitalism is pretty good at delivering goods and services, that it suffers from a business cycle, and that markets by themselves are not good at correcting externalities (such as pollution). Economics engages with this empirical reality. The people who are quickest to call economics "propaganda" are the ones who want to deny this reality.
> However, it eschews the tradition of teaching a variety of views and perspectives for the rigid orthodoxy of classical physics or chemistry, without the clean experimental results to back it up.
I have same problem with astrology and numerology. Useful and entertaining and you can read about it in almost every newspaper but where is the proof?
> We now live in a different economic universe than we did before the crash
I think "this time is different" thinking is dangerous. Yes, maybe the world is different now, but it's only been 10 years since the big crash, not so long.
Expecting the world to keep being the same as it is now is just as dangerous as thinking it will always be as it was for the last 50 years.
“”” The one thing it never seemed to occur to anyone to do was to get a job at a bank, and find out what actually happens when someone asks to borrow money. In 2014 a German economist named Richard Werner did exactly that, and discovered that, in fact, loan officers do not check their existing funds, reserves, or anything else. They simply create money out of thin air, or, as he preferred to put it, “fairy dust.””””
Let me stop you there. Economists aren’t trying to create the exact theory that market participants implement. That would almost certainly be short sighted to the point of uselessness. (How often in your life have you woken up with Plan A and wound up doing B - where B is very different from A?) Instead, they’re looking for a theory that agrees in the outcome and may be applied usefully to describe what’s going on in resource allocation. This probably flies in the face of a technology focused era in which surveillance of the masses at the nearly perfectly micro/individual level is a prime factor in market valuation. Some of the largest corporations today have access to data no economist ever dared dream to consider.
That actually makes me think modern surveillance companies (google, Apple, amazon, etc) could really make market models from the individual to market level in aggregate.
Versus the topics at discussion here - which are macroeconomic. Macro is often hurt by a lack of data since there are only so many years of data of the goings ons of nations in a global context - with probably not enough variation to make conclusions.
I would write this author off, this is a rant and nothing more. "We now live in a different economic universe than we did before the crash. Falling unemployment no longer drives up wages..." Wages are certainly going up in places with low unemployment, its just not distributed as evenly as it was in prior history.
Graeber is also the person who wrote this sentence:
"Apple Computers is a famous example: it was founded by (mostly Republican) computer engineers who broke from IBM in Silicon Valley in the 1980s, forming little democratic circles of twenty to forty people with their laptops in each other's garages..."
For context: this idea is basically a fetish amongst those around Corbyn.
Danny Blanchflower was, at one point, influential amongst the Corbyn crowd. Around 2013-15, he made a prediction that wage growth wouldn't rise as unemployment fell. This was true for a while...until 2015, and wage growth was nearly 4% a few quarters ago.
The idea that high employment won't cause wage growth is something that you will, however, hear repeatedly from Corbynites.
Btw, economists, unlike the author, tend to be quite sensible on the Phillips curve and understand that the relationship varies.
> Central banks like the Bank of England create money as well, but monetarists are entirely wrong to insist that their proper function is to control the money supply. In fact, central banks do not in any sense control the money supply; their main function is to set the interest rate—to determine how much private banks can charge for the money they create. Almost all public debate on these subjects is therefore based on false premises.
This seems to be a weird oversight on the part of the author. Even if we accept the heterodox view of money creation as espoused by this article (which I do, for what it's worth), the central bank still plays a very important role even in the private creation of money. Setting the "risk-free" interest rate for the economy determines how much money banks are going to be willing to lend, which thereby determines how much money they will create. Just because the central bank is not printing the money themselves does not mean that their policy levers are not having profound effects on the money supply.
Graeber has an oddly dated notion of issues in macroeconomics. Targeting the money supply is a 70s era idea that the Bank of England tried briefly and abandoned in favor of targeting the interest rate.
This article lost me at "printing money does not cause inflation." How would that be possible? The only answer would be that money is increasing in value for some reason, and the government must print more to keep prices stable (otherwise they would fall). Even then, it would be a technicality.
There are multiple cases where an increase in money supply doesn't lead to inflation; the United States in recent years comes to mind:
"A good example is in a recession, the stock of money may rise 5%, however, people will be making fewer transactions and therefore the velocity of circulation will fall. This explains why quantitative easing (increasing the money supply) did not cause inflation between 2009 and 2016." [0]
The article I link below contains 3 more examples:
You are arguing that this is sometimes true. The author was clearly arguing that it is generally true:
"We now live in a different economic universe than we did before the crash. Falling unemployment no longer drives up wages. Printing money no longer causes inflation."
He is stating that we are in a different universe, with the clear implication being that the following items, which he does not qualify, are the new reality.
But is have to be consumables that are put into the basket. Inflation/deflation doesn't make sense otherwise. If an asset gains in nominal value, that means nominated in that asset, the consumables fell in price, i.e. we observe deflation.
If the valuations of housing and stocks rise, this isn't inflation: If I owned them then I can sell these and buy more consumables than before, not less.
To add some precision: doesn't lead to consumer price inflation.
Increasing the money supply has caused massive inflation; the price of gold isn't where it is because the colour yellow is in fashion. Asset prices are out of control.
The price of gold (or silver)isn't out of control at all. There has been a peak (because people viewed it as a reliable asset) and then the situation stabilized (for gold) and almost returned to its level before 2008 (for silver) whereas the money from the QE is still here!
Picking on 2005 as a start year, because that was a little before QE, to 2019 silver has risen at a 5% p.a. rate and gold at at 8% rate. The official inflation rate over that time is 2% (from https://www.usinflationcalculator.com/).
I put it to you that the value of gold is not really rising at a real rate of 6% per annum. That is better than the US economy! It is much more likely that QE caused asset price inflation. Silver probably doesn't get treated so much as an asset because storing it is so much harder than gold.
Well no in fact there is no 'shape you are meant to see'. Inflation can be expressed in prices smoothly or in sharp jumps. People probably anticipated more money was going to be printed and priced it in, then when the Fed started tapering traders wound back to current state rather than forward-looking guesses. A sentence of speculation on my part there I know.
It is a fact that there is a big real gap between the pre-QE price and the post-QE price. You can hand-wave and claim that because the chart is the wrong shape it doesn't count - and argument which I obviously am going to reject. But even accepting that, are you really comfortable saying that these commodities are securing real value increases? I'm a mining engineer and it isn't because it is getting 3-6% per annum harder to mine commodities each year in real terms. If you don't like 2005 pick any year prior to the financial crisis; gold is mysteriously outperforming the inflation.
Quacks like a duck. QE probably went in to asset prices.
> Well no in fact there is no 'shape you are meant to see'. Inflation can be expressed in prices smoothly or in sharp jumps.
But sharp drop isn't an option, hence my argument.
> It is a fact that there is a big real gap between the pre-QE price and the post-QE price.
Sigh! The graphs show that there is no such “gap”.
> But even accepting that, are you really comfortable saying that these commodities are securing real value increases? I'm a mining engineer and it isn't because it is getting 3-6% per annum harder to mine commodities each year in real terms.
If course it's not tied to any real value, that's never been my argument. The initial point was: “increase in the money supply by QE didn't cause the prices (including asset prices) to rise”. And you even agree with that when you say this.
> If you don't like 2005 pick any year prior to the financial crisis; gold is mysteriously outperforming the inflation
(And BTW gold is rising again in 2019, while there has been no QE policy in years in the US).
> But sharp drop isn't an option, hence my argument.
Obviously it is an option; it just happened with gold.
> Sigh! The graphs show that there is no such “gap”.
Price was $15,000/kg in US dollars and is now cruising pretty easily above $40,000/kg US. You can sigh and pretend not to see it all you like but you are still ignoring pretty clear evidence of about 8% nominal growth/6% real growth annually in a shiny rock.
I'll admit to being quite impressed that you can look at a 260% price change upwards and say it doesn't count as a price increase because you think the chart is the wrong shape.
> And you even agree with that when you say this.
No I don't. QE is the most likely factor causing these unreasonable 'real' increases in asset prices that are very well illustrated in the gold price. The idea that gold is getting more valuable in real terms is foolish, so the fact it is showing such outrageous gains in real prices since pre-QE is strong evidence that actual inflation in assets is higher than 2%.
> (And BTW gold is rising again in 2019, while there has been no QE policy in years in the US).
Actually they just got going again. A forward-looking analyst might reasonably guess that there is a lot of money about to hit the markets.
> Obviously it is an option; it just happened with gold.
It's not an option in case of an inflation mechanism. If it was inflation, it wouldn't drop like this. That's the signature of speculation which is something totally different.
> Price was $15,000/kg in US dollars and is now cruising pretty easily above $40,000/kg US. You can sigh and pretend not to see it all you like but you are still ignoring pretty clear evidence of about 8% nominal growth/6% real growth in a shiny rock.
There is no gap on the graph, nor there is a 8% annual growth. But as you keep ignoring the shape of the curve and keep acting as if it didn't exist, I'm uninterested in pushing this discussion forward.
So what are you calling the price rise? An 8% annual drop?
How do you get from $15,000 to $40,000 without annualised growth? I'm intrigued.
EDIT Just pointing out, the averaging I'm doing its reducing the relative inflationary impact of QE on asset prices because I'm including a lot of time to today where there was no QE.
> How do you get from $15,000 to $40,000 without annualised growth? I'm intrigued.
With a 25% annual increase while no QE was running (2005-2008), a 75% annual increase with QE(2009-2012), a 0% increase with no-QE (2012) followed by a 30% drop when QE3 was launched! (sept 2012), then a little decline during the whole QE3 and which continued after QE3 was stopped (Q4 2014) until 2016, then again some fluctuation in an upward trend.
If you see a temporal correlation between QE and the price of gold, I can do nothing for you as you are blinded by your ideological convictions.
I don't think gold is a good example of whatever you are saying is happening.
Gold hit a peak about eight years ago, and before that, while it was going up in kind of an apparent smooth exponential curve, there wasn't any significant blip from the financial crisis, 9/11, or anything else. Is there even a generally accepted explanation for this behavior? If post-crisis spending is blamed, how did the market for gold "know" for years in advance?
I did some looking around, and ran across a page which claims gold was particularly low around 2000 because of central bank sales and rose steadily for almost a decade because energy prices were going up. Also, I remember how cheap gas was around 2000 as well.
> "printing money does not cause inflation." How would that be possible?
I haven't read this particular article, but I've read elsewhere that traditional tools used by central banks to increase inflation are being observed to empirically no longer work. I understand many of these techniques are analogous to "printing money" in a controlled way. That points to failures in their models of the economy and of inflation.
I also think I've read that at least some of the reason for this may be higher than expected levels monopoly-type powers active in the economy that conspire to keep prices and wages, and therefore inflation, down. My recollection is hazier on this part.
Edit: this might be the article I was thinking of:
Are Superstar Firms and Amazon Effects Reshaping the Economy?: The biggest companies may be influencing things like inflation and wage growth, possibly at the expense of central bankers’ power to do so.
> Two of the most important economic facts of the last few decades are that more industries are being dominated by a handful of extraordinarily successful companies and that wages, inflation and growth have remained stubbornly low.
> Many of the world’s most powerful economic policymakers are now taking seriously the possibility that the first of those facts is a cause of the second — and that the growing concentration of corporate power has confounded the efforts of central banks to keep economies healthy.
> Mainstream economists are discussing questions like whether “monopsony” — the outsize power of a few consolidated employers — is part of the problem of low wage growth. They are looking at whether the “superstar firms” that dominate many leading industries are responsible for sluggish investment spending. And they’re exploring whether there is an “Amazon Effect” in which fast-changing pricing algorithms by the online retailer and its rivals mean bigger swings in inflation.
> I haven't read this particular article, but I've read elsewhere that traditional tools used by central banks to increase inflation are being observed to empirically no longer work. I understand many of these techniques are analogous to "printing money" in a controlled way.
There are circumstances where printing money does increase inflation.... and circumstances where it does not:
> When short-term interest rates reach zero, further monetary easing becomes difficult and may require unconventional monetary policy, such as large-scale asset purchases (quantitative easing).
It should be noted that central banks are not omnipotent: they do have some influence, but they do not have all the influence. When governments enact austerity, which depresses demand and economic activity, thus reducing inflationary tendencies, they are working at cross-purposes to the central banks.
After the Great Recession we saw central bankers cut rates, but governments cut spending, thus the two cancelling each other out to a certain extent.
Network goods? Are telephones more valuable when more people have them? Road networks?
Just pointing out that many things in economics are not so obvious.
You're right that you need to cite things that go against the orthodoxy. At least to have sane debates. But of course he could have cited the current money printing era, where if you believe the official figures there's not a lot of inflation anywhere in the west. I'm not so confident in the figures, but that's at least some evidence that printing a load of money doesn't cause inflation.
I know there's an economic element to networks, but in the context of what we're talking about, more people having a telephone is a measure of the products quality, not supply. Capacity of the network would equal supply. Right?
The value of a single phone is zero, 2 phones grants each owner the ability to contact one person (2 units of value total), 3 grants 3 owners 2 each (6), 4 -> 3 (12), 5->4 (20). In other words, increasing the size of the network multiplies the value of the entire network by that amount (factorial).
In a phone network, there are a few different tipping points where the _ubiquity_ adds additional value. At a certain point, having a phone is worthwhile because everyone you could possibly want to talk to also has one. (this is also why I still have an account on Facebook).
The same can be said of a currency network. It becomes more valuable the more people you can exchange it with. People using US dollars outside the US gain value from knowing they have a trusted "stable third party" currency, and at the same time US dollars become more value to citizens of the US because they can now use that currency for purchases in that other country.
Having 20 phones with one owner is practically worthless, even though the network capacity is theoretically high. Distributing those phones among twenty people is what generates the real value. But you can't really distribute 20 phones equally among 200 people.
You need sufficient saturation of currency for its distribution to be of any real value, because you need enough quantity to be able to use it to do its job as a holder of arbitrary value exchange.
I appreciate the response. I get that... (I think)
I just don't get why that necessarily has anything to do with supply itself. It has to do with the distribution, and as a result, the quality or utility of the network.
As you said, one person having 20 phones is off dubious value, but 20 additional people with phones might increase the network's quality.
The supply (20) is independent of the resulting quality/saturation/useful node count.
On the other hand, increased nodes could be seen as a negative. Like the US-Russia hotline. Or Facebook after it opened up to users without college email accounts.
Sometimes supply might affect the quality of a network, and therefore the value of having a node (phone) on that network. But to say supply increases with demand is misleading, to me. Increased quality increases demand, at a rate greater than the rate demand is decreased due to increased supply.
If supply happens to increase quality, then yes supply might dominate the equation such that demand increases as supply increases. But that doesn't mean the fundamental relationship between supply and demand has changed, it's just been minimized for particular cases.
Or maybe I'm just getting confused by transitive semantics.
I would agree with most of what you said here. To echo your semantics and in the greater context of this thread, I was merely pointing out that increasing the supply (and in the case of money, distribution/saturation) could increase the "quality" at a rate faster than the forces that that push the "quality" down in terms of "quality" per unit of currency. In the specific case of money, there is an additional group psychology at play: if you believe your money won't be worth as much tomorrow as it is today, then you should spend it today if you can. Since the value derived from currency is in its exchange (it's not producing any value sitting under a mattress), it increases the "quality" of the currency for it to be circulating.
Yea, if we're talking about money supply I suspect the phone comparison might be apt in a slightly different way.
I haven't seen anyone touch on it in this thread, but I've read opinions where people have blamed companies for hoarding all of the newly available cash, especially for stock buybacks.
If there's any truth to that, it would make sense, since companies can usually get better rates and first dibs at market level loans/ bonds/ etc than small business or individuals.
In the phone analogy, (if we assume there's some value having multiple phones) this would be like a new dialing prefix being released, and companies buying up the numbers hundreds at a time at bulk rate discount, leaving little or no additional numbers for individuals.
So supply was increased, but the businesses hoarding new numbers prevents any quality improvement if the network.
Venezuela is a great example that hyperinflation, or substantial consumer price inflation, is mostly a forex phenomenon, and in turn a balance of trade problem. Because you can't print other countries' money.
Venezuela is a disaster because its export industries collapsed, and it doesn't have the advantage that western countries have of being an inward investment destination. So all sorts of things have to be imported, and the dollars needed to import them become increasingly scarce.
Printing money is a symptom. If the presses stopped then all that would happen is that paper money would become increasingly scarce as well as worthless.
I think you conflated value and price. Increased supply of anything lowers it's price not it's value. For example, oxygen is extremely valuable, can't live without it, but it is also very abundant. Therefore, its price is $0 almost everywhere. When you go to a ski resort, where the air is much thinner, there then becomes a market for oxygen and the price goes up[0]. The price changed with supply, not the value.
Because it's pretty clear to anyone close to economics. Nobody is monetarist nowadays, because data shows they were simply wrong [1].
The monetarist pitch was sexy because it sounded intuitive and elegant, that's why it spread so broadly. But it's worthless. Too bad for elegance and intuitiveness, if the reality doesn't match your model, you must throw it away.
> Increased supply of anything lowers it's value.
It doesn't work this way for money. otherwise,how would you explain that Euro isn't getting cheaper in dollar since 2015 when BCE is injecting billions of Euros on the market while the US has stopped QE for a while?
If we take the opposite of your logical argument, then lessened supply of anything increases it's value. That's a logical proposition stemming from your original thesis.
Now let's try applying that to bus networks. The more busses we have on the road, the less they're worth. If we reduce the supply of busses, then busses will be more valuable.
But this ignores the network effects of increasing the supply of something. If we increase the supply of busses, then we also increase the demand for busses and the value of busses through increased ridership. A single bus is worthless, but a fleet of busses is valuable to a community.
I honestly don't get these network arguments. The market isn't for seats on buses, it's for timely transportation.
The quality of the transportation affects the value. Which in the case of buses, more buses equals a better, more frequent and readily available product. The number of seats isn't the limiting factor. It's just a side effect of somewhat standardized bus sizes.
If you print money and then give it all to big banks who use it to ramp up the price of equities, it never really reaches the average person for them to be able to ramp up the price of the basket of things which CPI measures. Inflation here is seen in the stock market tripling, but that isn't included in government measures.
Because it's not inflation. It would be an asset bubble. Except it's not even that -- the P/E ratio on stock is high now because the economic news has been good, but it's nowhere near dotcom bubble levels (https://www.multpl.com/s-p-500-pe-ratio).
I don't know, I mean, things like rent and healthcare costs seem to be increasing at runaway speeds. I'm sure lots of other things are too, just not TVs or whatever.
I remember hearing about new economic theory that talks about inflation being related to latent productive capacity. If, for example, a factory is only producing at half capacity because there is not enough people with money to buy their product, they can simply increase production if more money is put into the system without raising prices. It is only once a factory is at full capacity that it would raise prices to match the supply/demand curve.
Our modern economies have a lot of latent capacity, especially since so much of our economy these days does not have a lot of raw materials involved. More Netflix subscribers don't use much more raw materials to serve them. We are not limited by things like oil and iron anymore, so we don't hit supply issues which cause inflation.
This is basically Keynesianism, which is the leading paradigm in macroeconomics. The challenge is knowing how much excess capacity there is in the economy. Unemployment is 3.6%, so I would guess not a lot, but I could be wrong.
I think he means that printing money doesn’t change supply and demand curves. It only lowers the value of the money that one already has. For example, if one government prints more money, it doesn’t cause Global inflation. It just makes one country’s money worth less.
Interestingly, you're doing exactly what the article is criticizing.
The orthodoxy of "everything is supply and demand" has failed to predict many recent, important macroeconomic phenomenon. On the hand, the heterodox economists that draw from a variety of traditions and ideologies have had a reasonable success rate with predicting some of these important events; yet they are still treated as crackpots.
The reality is orthodox economics is just one theory of politics and the organization of society, which sometimes applies and sometimes doesn't. Treating everything as just "[the] definition of supply and demand" forgoes observing interesting and important phenomenon that seemingly work in opposition to or independent of supply and demand. Ignoring these phenomenon restricts your ability to understand and predict macroeconomic effects, and degrades your legitimacy as a 'science'.
The laws of supply and demand apply to everything, period.
But they can only be predicative if you know the correct numbers. And because they do apply to everything, perfect accuracy and precision would require measurements that we don't know how to make or could make, as well as measurements for stuff we don't even know about. In applied economics people necessarily make simplifications, like assuming nominal prices in currency accurately reflect the various considerations consumers and producers have in mind. Suffice it to say, even tiny errors can easily and quickly produce bogus assessments and predictions.
The proper criticism to basic economic laws isn't that they don't control, it's that we systematically underestimate (another measurement error!) our capability of applying them well, both ex post as well as and especially a priori.
The same problem exists in all fields, it's just that many problems are relatively more tractable; solutions may not diverge as quickly, are more tolerant of inaccuracy and imprecision, generally producing more useful results. But at some point your numbers are sufficiently off that your predictions and models produce results widely at odds with reality. Such as all the various crazy and contradictory hypotheses regarding cosmological phenomena; hypotheses which turn on tiny uncertainties regarding various parameters.
But in economics there are fewer constants and a heck of a lot more free variables for even simple predictions. It's quite literally intractable. That's why people often conceptualize "the market" as a giant calculator. We know the basic principles to the calculator, but at scale nobody can arrive at the solution faster than the giant calculator itself. Anyone telling you they can do so is necessarily lying to you. But in general the only people telling you that are politicians, pundits, and other people with an agenda, though sadly too many of them are also economists.
I've been reading Krugman and DeLong for the last ten years, and they've been calling things pretty accurately in that time, so I have no idea what the author is smoking.
When we're talking about prices of goods, an increase in demand increases the monetary price of the goods. Price itself is a ratio, as William Stanley Jevons noted, of currency per unit of good.
When we're talking about demand for money, an increase in demand for money means that it is valued more highly than goods or services. The price of money in this context, is ... goods and services. That is, a higher demand for money means a (comparatively) lower demand for goods and services.
Which is to say, a propensity to offer a smaller amount of money for a given unit of goods and services.
An increased demand for money === a decrease in nominal prices. By supply/demand logic.
Depends on what the price is denominated in. I initially read "price" as price in foreign currency, which would increase.
Actually, that works for anything, like bananas--you'd pay more bananas for the same amount of that paper currency, thus the price in bananas increases.
No, the value does not increase. The price increases. Price and value are different in economic contexts, and you quite clearly were referring to "value" as economic value in your first comment, and are now using "value" to refer to price.
The amount of money (M) can be increased without prices (P) going up so long as either the velocity (V) of money goes down or the economy (Q) becomes larger.
> The only answer would be that money is increasing in value for some reason, and the government must print more to keep prices stable (otherwise they would fall). Even then, it would be a technicality.
I don't think that's a technicality at all, but rather the norm in an expanding economy. In such a case the supply of money must increase in order to maintain stable prices. More stuff to purchase requires more money to purchase it.
Inflation occurs when the supply of money increases faster than the amount of goods and services available for purchase, or if the money supply remains the same, but the goods and services available somehow decrease (for instance, after a lost war or natural disaster).
Deflation occurs when the supply of goods and services increases faster than the amount of money, or when the supply of money decreases with the goods and services remaining the same.
We've seen a lot of bad inflation in recent history, but it's not often appreciated that deflation can be equally ruinous. The Great Depression is an example of what you get if deflation gets out of hand. The prices for everything from stocks and bonds to apples and wheat plummeted, but it sure didn't lead to a consumer's paradise.
There’s been a huge increase in the money supply around the world since the GFC and hardly any inflation. This should not be a surprise because monetarism already failed as soon as it was tried 35 years ago. Simple models of the price level do not work. Output, trade, interest rates, investment, consumption, conflict between capital and labor, it all matters.
I think the author didn't elaborate further because while this is non-intuitive and tends to rail up the internet armchair economists, it actually is a well researched phenomenon.
And I have to point out "printing money does not cause inflation" is exactly what happened in the US and Europe after 2007/8. There was massive QE but no increase in inflation (inflation was actually reduced).
Interestingly enough, the Monetarist view, which link between inflation and money creation is mostly a myth that was debunked long ago[1] (if you look at the history of the US since the 60s you'd see that this «hypothesis» doesn't hold, neither in short terms nor in long terms).
But it was so obviously intuitive for the layperson that it caught rapidly in the opinion, and now it's considered common sense.
The printing-money-will-not-cause-inflation was predicted by Keynesians:
> Suddenly it seems as if everyone is talking about inflation. Stern opinion pieces warn that hyperinflation is just around the corner. And markets may be heeding these warnings: Interest rates on long-term government bonds are up, with fear of future inflation one possible reason for the interest-rate spike.
> But does the big inflation scare make any sense? Basically, no — with one caveat I’ll get to later. And I suspect that the scare is at least partly about politics rather than economics.
The economic models said that the Fed should have decreased interest rates until they reached -6.7% (i.e., well below zero), but this that was impractical, the next-best thing was flood the market with cash equivalent, and that inflation would not appear:
> It seemed totally obvious to many people that with the Fed adding to the monetary base at breakneck speed, high inflation just had to be around the corner. That’s what history told us, right?
> Except that those who knew their Hicks declared that this time was different, that in a liquidity trap the rise in the monetary base wouldn’t be inflationary at all (and that the relevant history was from Japan since the 1990s and from the 1930s, which seemed to confirm this claim). And so it proved, as shown by the red marker down at the bottom.
> According to mainstream theory, among the characteristics of a liquidity trap are interest rates that are close to zero and changes in the money supply that fail to translate into changes in the price level.[2]
The [2] is a 1998 paper by Krugman talking about Japan. So ten years before the Great Recession there were already models on how to think about increasing M2 from other countries' experiences.
The buying power of $1 USD has diminished massively over time and continues to do so. Every year the money in your wallet is worth at least 1.8% less. Over your lifetime that becomes a substantial loss in buying power.
That is an example of monetary policy working exactly as intended. If the buying power of $1 USD didn’t diminish, there would be an incentive for people to hoard their wealth instead of investing and spending their wealth to build the economy.
Required for education: Unskilled labor "must" pay less to motivate people to get diplomas.
Required for productivity: Wages "must" be low enough so that people have to keep working.
Since motivation to get a diploma depends on the size of the income advantage "ideally" people without diplomas should barely be able to sustain themselves - forever.
All other economic talk seems filler material. All excessive wealth "should" go towards sustaining the filler material or otherwise be destroyed. For this purpose we also see endless investment in businesses that exist only for the purpose of extracting wealth from everyone else. Some of course deliver useful products in return but if they could increase ROI by not making anything most if not all would do it. If they operate at a loss it is even more "beneficial" to the system. For this purpose we also have 32 Trillion "hidden" in tax havens.
The whole thing seems to have "evolved" so that we all are as productive as possible only to sacrifice the produce on the altar of productivity again. The bad thing about this is that all this "productivity" destroys everything around us. It all costs finite resources. We would be better off just making what we need efficiently.
Can anyone recommend a book or other resource that gives an overview of the various schools of economics including the "heterodox" ones?
When I'm learning about a subject I find it much easier if I have a framework for categorizing and organizing the different approaches or topics that the subject consists of.
I have an outsider's perspective, I studied economics but mostly ended up doing economic history (I am a practical person, and preferred stats to models)...
...the point of economics is not to produce models that are 100% accurate. Yes, there is an absolute ton of witchcraft in economics and especially in macro (CGE, DGE to name two areas beloved by civil servants/central banks) but it is very far from useless (and, contrary to what the author thinks, there is a hell of a lot of testing of theories). The issue, funnily enough given the author's perspective, is often that we use economics to just support whatever we already believe.
On his actual content: unsurprisingly, he gets his history totally wrong.
First, an important point, the UK never actually adopted monetarism. We were forced to adopt DCE targets by the IMF in 1968 but everyone thought it was bullshit. Even after Thatcher crushed inflation, monetarism was only popular amongst the small group of City economics/journalists who came to the idea in the 1970s (and were thought of as crackpots by non-risk takers). The UK was thoroughly Keynesian, that is why we persisted with utterly insane policies through govts under both parties (until Thatcher).
Second, saying monetarism causes disaster confuses the cause and effect. Monetarism, whatever its theoretical faults, was correct in 1979 but was only necessary because Labour/Heath had fucked the economy beyond belief (the UK went to a three-day week because the economy literally just stopped working).
Third, the 1960/70s were not a period of economic success. Inflation hit 25%, two devaluations, one trip to the IMF, one banking crisis, and endless begging other people to lend money (and the govt got a reputation for going back on agreements). Incomes policy was, objectively, one of the most disastrous policies ever conceived. It ended up, literally, with unions running the economy in 1974. Yes, growth was high but real growth was lower and supported by population growth. I am not aware of any history which concludes any economic policy pursued in this period worked. Everything failed.
Fourth, what everyone forgets about the 1950/60s was that there was almost no trade. That is why workers were richer. Most currencies weren't convertible until the late 50s. The UK could milk Commonwealth nations dry with no competition. But the evidence here is clear: trade makes us richer. Anyone who says this isn't the case, even Trump recognises this, is an ignoramus.
Fifth, Greenspan understood there was a bubble. He gave a speech in 1998 saying there was a bubble. The issue - which is perfectly logical if you look at what happened in 1958 when the Fed did burst a bubble - is that people will say you caused the downturn if you intervene (he blames monetarism for causing the downturn but also blames the Fed for not bursting the bubble...what a genius this guy must be, spotting bubbles like he is at a car wash). This is an attempt to inject some psychology into economics, it is amazing the author doesn't see this.
It is no surprise Graeber has thrown his lot in with Corbyn. The number of crackpot acolytes around Corbyn grows every day (thankfully, he remains unpopular with voters). I would vote for Labour normally...but their current policies are just...ignorant. These ideas have been tried, they didn't work, that is why Corbyn has support amongst young people who don't read books. The logic is: build a wall, make Goldman Sachs pay for it.
> The number of crackpot acolytes around Corbyn grows every day (thankfully, he remains unpopular with voters). I would vote for Labour normally...but their current policies are just...ignorant. These ideas have been tried, they didn't work, that is why Corbyn has support amongst young people who don't read books.
You've obviously taken all of this as an attack on your personal view of politics and its intersection with economics. However, instead of reflecting on why the economists that have associated themselves with Labour are criticizing your politic, you've taken to calling them crackpots. Robert Skidelsky certainly has the credentials to be taken seriously, regardless if you agree or not. Throwing out a few points that are _directly refuted_ by Skidelsky doesn't make for useful or productive criticism.
Together, this isn't the mark of an outsider. At best you're a 'useful idiot' in the Chomskyian sense, at worst you're the economist that supports violent austerity the article is criticizing.
This article is utterly nonsensical (claiming the money supply is essentially unrelated to inflation) but the specifics of their argument say a lot about the field and why things I think are about to get worse.
Their argument goes
A) current economic regimes are built on shifting sand and border on useless for predicting macro crises (this is true more or less)
B) there are other schools of thought out there which are sometimes more predictive than the main stream
C) therefore get rid of economics
D) and replace it with a different version of economics, specifically one which agress with my politics.
The problem is that they are right, mainstream economics is junk, and so it becomes really hard to discredit other wacky ideas like mmt, or endless unmoderated fiscal stimulus because hey, couldn't be much worse than our system which seems to blow up and screw everyone over.
> claiming the money supply is essentially unrelated to inflation
I don't think this is the actual claim. The key quote is this (emphasis mine):
> Doubling the amount of gold in a country will have no effect on the price of cheese if you give all the gold to rich people and they just bury it in their yards, or use it to make gold-plated submarines
It's not that they're unrelated, it's that increasing the monetary supply is a necessary but not sufficient criterion for inflation to occur. I don't think the author would likely deny that printing boatloads of money resulted in inflation in Zimbabwe or Venezuela, just that if you increase the monetary supply specifically by giving it to rich people who hoard and it never gets spent on consumer goods, it won't affect the price of consumer goods. That's not how it went down in Venezuela, but is (the author asserts) what kept QE from working.
I don't think the author would likely deny that printing boatloads of money resulted in inflation in Zimbabwe or Venezuela
They might, actually, since the relationship between cause and effect isn't as simple as that. In both cases, the economy collapsed, causing massive inflation from the supply shock. The governments turned that into hyper-inflation by responding with printing money, but that was effect rather than cause. Even if they hadn't devalued their currency that way, they would still have been in a crisis.
The hyperinflation added an accounting crisis on top of that, but that's more about numbers than about the real problems. It's frequently presented as if the monetary policy were the cause of the crisis and they should just stop doing that, but it's simply not true. What they needed was to fix their specific national disasters -- destroying the farming infrastructure in Zimbabwe's case (after centuries of colonialism putting all of the farmland in the hands of an entrenched elite and race-based oppression of everybody else), and the collapse of the oil economy in Venezuela's (as well as mismanagement of their oil wealth leading up to it).
It doesn't need to be spent on consumer goods to cause inflation. It can also be spend on economic investment ie. new capital (new factories, new equipment, infrastructure inventory, supplies, training, R&D, real estate, mining operation etc. etc.). The money will quickly flow to employees and then to everything else.
Only if the rich keep all the new money in cash form would it not cause inflation but this would usually be a very risky and unstable situation for the money hoarders as some of the money on the sidelines can start moving at any time which would cause inflation to spike and the rest of the stockpile to lose value quickly.
> The money will quickly flow to employees and then to everything else.
Sure, I never said it was the rich people that had to do the spending, so we don't disagree there, but if "inflation" as commonly measured (CPI, say) is to occur, the prices of consumer goods have to change, and someone at some point has to buy some, whether it's the rich people or their employees, and if it's the latter it requires that the former sink their money into something that employs people. The author suggests that this happens less reliably than it used to (that they hoard cash, or I dunno, gold? whatever -- something societally unproductive)
If newly minted money is spent on economic investment it generally creates economic growth rather than inflation (in general: obviously there are specific investments individual companies can make which drive up prices and it is possible for a rapidly-growing economy to run into short term supply constraints). Sure, the money will flow to the workers who will have more money to spend than they previously did, but it only does so because they are also making more stuff for the additional cash circulating to be used to buy...
It seems like we already have something similar with high real estate prices and money-losing unicorns? But we don't seem to see unneeded new factories or mining happening. Apparently there needs to be some plausible idea around why the investment will make money, and tech has better stories about how that might happen.
> D) and replace it with a different version of economics, specifically one which agrees with my politics.
All of macroeconomics is really just politics though, so if you believe a particular political conception is more useful or valuable, of course you want economics to follow. It's a shame the author didn't cite more, but it also doesn't mean they're wrong.
The current set of economists are evolved Reagan-era republicans, which is certainly political, and one particular politic at that.
Well... it's true that macroeconomics is always influenced by politics. It's not true, though, that "all of macroeconomics is really just politics". There's a bit more to macroeconomics than just "here's my politics, therefore here's my economics".
This is not an argument against economics, but against specific ideas in economics holding true:
"Falling unemployment no longer drives up wages. Printing money does not cause inflation."
This is not fair.
A) Wages are the last thing to rise and tend only to do so when unemployment is low. We're just now reaching that level.
B) Inflation doesn't well account for surpluses: we're getting a lot of bang for our buck in digital services, something that's super hard for the BLS to measure. 'Consumer Surpluses' are like 'profits' to the consumer that are not really measured at all - the only place we do this is when the BLS measures the 'quality' of a basket of goods to figure out inflation: i.e. if the Tomato is getting nicer, redder, juicier, then part of the increased cost of said tomato goes to value, the rest to inflation. This is hard enough to do already, but nary impossible with new services coming online.
Case and point: Fortnite. It's free. I've played quite a number of hours of that last year and never spent a dime. Apex is a big game, not free. This is a new trend. The surpluses there are vast. Games have a measurable effect on time spent on other things as well.
In a nutshell: consumers lives are improving in ways not always appreciated.
C) "Printing money does not cause inflation" - generally, it absolutely does! It just depends where you measure said inflation: stocks, housing - massive inflation. We just don't put that into our version of inflation. But there's inflation for sure!
Consider point 1 and 2 together: if stocks are doing well, and CEO's are getting their rewards for strong returns, why are they incented to innovate, pay more etc? Screw that - in a game of 'stocks going up because free money' - the strategy is to 'do nothing' - just keep operating as per, and avoid risk. 'Push the button, collect reward'. Risk changes the nature of the operating environment, and who wants that if there's steady 'returns'?
D) The Fed is not 'printing money' really, it's not quite fair to say that in the sense usually implied: a government (or anyone else) 'printing money' to pay for stuff has an entirely different implication.
I'll state the article misses the most important things:
1) Printing money almost assuredly does cause inflation, even now.
2) All things equal wages will rise as unemployment lowers. It's just that 'all things are not equal'. Take a look at real surpluses. Take a look at debt-leveraging in homes. Take a look at bifurction of employment from 'tech workers' to 'powerless gig economy' people. Take a look at levels of migrants, their relative skill and their relative market power for wages (they have little power, and there are enough that it absolutely moves the needle).
'Economics' can be used to measure and address all of those things, you just have to start looking at the data, and if not, start measuring things we didn't before.
My bet is the answers are not actually that far off, and probably not very surprising if we could see 'all the data' otherwise ignored or unmeasured.
Ah, but it does. It creates asset inflation. This may be the worst kind of all possible inflation because it makes people believe they are wealthier than they are. When the inflation can no longer be sustained, large numbers will soon find out they are far poorer than they once thought. That's the stuff of revolutions and Dark Times.
Asset inflation takes root through policies that distribute money, not to the poor (Great Society), but to the rich (Deregulation and Quantitative Easing). The rich have no use for the money being given out and so drive up asset prices with it.
From this perspective, it's easier to see how a multi-thousand word essay on new economics fails to mention negative interest rates once.