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> but I think that, in the UK, you don’t actually own the land your house sits on; Lord Such-and-Such owns it, and collects rent from you.

I've never heard this before. Is this actually true? Is this some background technical legal truth that isn't noticed in practice?




To be clear, anyone can own the freehold that you’re leasing the property from. The mention of ”Lord Such-and-Such” could give you the idea that this is some antiquated construct where all lands are somehow truly owned by the nobility, but that’s not how it is.


Called a leasehold. Not all property is like this though.


Like, 85% in London though.



Ok, maybe I should have specified "under £650k within zones 1, 2 and 3".

I'm sure Roman Abramovich's mansion is freehold as are all those semidetached houses on the outskirts with a 55 minute commute to the centre.




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