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If you purchased the house with a personal mortgage, is the terms for that note not written so that it is expected to be your primary domicile while also explicitly stating that it will not be a rental property? Of the mortgages that I've had in the past, this is how they were written.

Or were we specifically talking about how to handle that 2nd home. I don't have experience on those contracts.




No buying a house with a personal mortgage requires you to have that house as your primary residence only for 1 year. That's pretty much the core behind the concept of house hacking. Buy, live there for 1 year, move and rent it out, repeat.


It's written as your primary domicile when you take the loan. There is no way to enforce that it remains as such for the life of the loan.




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