> [wiki:] The rise of wages in jobs without productivity gains results from the need to compete for workers with jobs that have experienced productivity gains
This implies that higher productivity gains result in higher wages, which is historically not the case. This explanation appears to only establish a weak correlation (productivity->wages) and stick to it where other factors like cost of living better explain even regional differences. Or what do i miss?
This implies that higher productivity gains result in higher wages, which is historically not the case. This explanation appears to only establish a weak correlation (productivity->wages) and stick to it where other factors like cost of living better explain even regional differences. Or what do i miss?