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It's downvoted because it's a transparent and weak attempt to "both sides" something that's not both-sidesable.



Why is it not "both-sidesable"?


Middle ground fallacy


No, I'm asking for details in this specific case. I don't have deep knowledge and understanding of the subject, so why is it no applicable in this case?


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_tariff_ra...

> The European Commission says it charges an average tariff of just 1% on US products entering the EU market, "considering the actual trade in goods". It adds that the US administration collected approximately €7 billion of tariffs on EU products in 2023 compared to the EU's €3 billion on US goods.

> A World Trade Organisation (WTO) estimate puts the average tariff rate on US products entering the EU slightly higher at 4.8%.

> In both cases, this is far off the 39% figure quoted by the Trump administration.

https://www.euronews.com/my-europe/2025/04/03/fact-check-are...


Imagine calling trade "not both-sidesable". You can't make this stuff up.


We're not talking about trade, we're talking about executive actions hampering trade.




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