> At the same time as not strong arming these bodies, at least one might be? What is the implication here?
Yes, exactly. Most don't but one looks like it might be.
> How is less trust/revisions in the data today connected with what Britain was doing 70+ years ago?
Because up until the pandemic the data had been getting steadily better with fewer "surprises", now it seems to have stagnated: "Two factors have now brought progress to a halt."
On the first point, ok sure - it may be the case that most aren’t but one is. So… what’s the reader supposed to take away from that? What’s the problem we’re looking at here - malpractice or corruption? Just both but maybe one more than the other? Seems like bad writing to me.
Second point - ok, great. Let’s actually structure the article around that. “We think that cuts in statistical departments, coupled with lower and more complicated survey engagement, have made it harder to rely on the data those departments produce”. Great, nice, coherent argument.
I’m totally not trying to get at you, I just think TFA did a pretty bad job of explaining the problem it’s trying to highlight.
Yes, exactly. Most don't but one looks like it might be.
> How is less trust/revisions in the data today connected with what Britain was doing 70+ years ago?
Because up until the pandemic the data had been getting steadily better with fewer "surprises", now it seems to have stagnated: "Two factors have now brought progress to a halt."